Class,
For those of you who may not have a copy of the Federalist #10, here is the link: http://www.mtbarclay.com/sitebuildercontent/sitebuilderfiles/thefederalistno10.doc
Saturday, October 27, 2012
Friday, October 26, 2012
Federalist 10
Don't forget to complete the Federalist reading and have answers complete by Monday for discussion. I will be collecting them at the beginning of the period...
Saturday, October 13, 2012
Chapter 16.1 Pages 582 to 585
1) Who was the D.C. lobbyist who pled guiltily to conspiracy, fraud, and tax evasion in 2006?
A) Tom DeLay
B) Robert Ney
C) Conrad Burns
D) Jack Abramoff
E) Robert Putnam
2) After paying for a lobbyist, Treasure Island, Florida received a $50 million appropriation in the
federal budget. This is called
A) casework.
B) logrolling.
C) constituency service.
D) an earmark.
E) a frank.
3) Involvement in community groups and activities
A) enhances social capital.
B) fosters self-reliance.
C) hinders resolution of collective action problems.
D) enhances the Protestant work ethic.
E) hinders economic and political development.
4) To which of the following groups are contemporary citizens most likely to belong?
A) bowling leagues
B) Elks Club
C) League of Women Voters
D) Lions Club
E) community associations
5) According to disturbance theory, why do interest groups form?
A) to serve the public good
B) to promote the well being of civil servants
C) to counteract the effects of other groups
D) to bother government
E) to bolster the economy
6) What kind of interest group focuses its attention on achieving collective goods?
A) public interest groups
B) economic interest groups
C) trade association groups
D) governmental units
E) political action committees
7) Common Cause, peace groups, environmental organizations, and other such groups are
examples of ________ interest groups.
A) social capital
B) civic virtue
C) public
D) economic
E) libertarian
8) A labor union is an example of a
A) public interest group.
B) economic interest group.
C) trade association group.
D) governmental unit.
E) political action committee.
9) Governmental units typically lobby for
A) political action committees.
B) trade associations.
C) foreign aid.
D) PETA.
E) earmarks.
10) Corporations can contribute money to political campaigns by forming
A) EIDs.
B) PACs.
C) 528 groups.
D) subsidiaries.
E) caucuses.
A) Tom DeLay
B) Robert Ney
C) Conrad Burns
D) Jack Abramoff
E) Robert Putnam
2) After paying for a lobbyist, Treasure Island, Florida received a $50 million appropriation in the
federal budget. This is called
A) casework.
B) logrolling.
C) constituency service.
D) an earmark.
E) a frank.
3) Involvement in community groups and activities
A) enhances social capital.
B) fosters self-reliance.
C) hinders resolution of collective action problems.
D) enhances the Protestant work ethic.
E) hinders economic and political development.
4) To which of the following groups are contemporary citizens most likely to belong?
A) bowling leagues
B) Elks Club
C) League of Women Voters
D) Lions Club
E) community associations
5) According to disturbance theory, why do interest groups form?
A) to serve the public good
B) to promote the well being of civil servants
C) to counteract the effects of other groups
D) to bother government
E) to bolster the economy
6) What kind of interest group focuses its attention on achieving collective goods?
A) public interest groups
B) economic interest groups
C) trade association groups
D) governmental units
E) political action committees
7) Common Cause, peace groups, environmental organizations, and other such groups are
examples of ________ interest groups.
A) social capital
B) civic virtue
C) public
D) economic
E) libertarian
8) A labor union is an example of a
A) public interest group.
B) economic interest group.
C) trade association group.
D) governmental unit.
E) political action committee.
9) Governmental units typically lobby for
A) political action committees.
B) trade associations.
C) foreign aid.
D) PETA.
E) earmarks.
10) Corporations can contribute money to political campaigns by forming
A) EIDs.
B) PACs.
C) 528 groups.
D) subsidiaries.
E) caucuses.
Chapter 16.2 Pages 585 to 592
1) Which of the following is a single-issue group?
A) MoveOn.org
B) AARP
C) U.S. Chamber of Commerce
D) National Rifle Association
E) NAACP
2) The right of citizens to form groups and to petition the government for changes in public
policies is protected by
A) the First Amendment.
B) the interest group clause.
C) the supremacy clause.
D) the interstate commerce clause.
E) the takings clause.
3) What did the Clayton Act do?
A) It allowed labor unions to form and guaranteed their right to strike.
B) It established open shop laws.
C) It granted vast swaths of land to the Central Pacific Railroad.
D) It allowed Standard Oil to drill on publicly owned land in Pennsylvania.
E) It required interest groups to share their membership lists with the government.
4) All of the following groups formed or reenergized during the 1960s or the 1970s EXCEPT
A) the American Civil Liberties Union.
B) the NAACP.
C) the Mexican American Legal Defense and Education Fund.
D) Common Cause.
E) the Christian Coalition.
5) During the 1960s and 1970s, what kinds of interest groups were most successful?
A) public interest and civil rights groups
B) conservative and Republican interest groups
C) religious and social conservative interest groups
D) gay and lesbian interest groups
E) faith-based and community imitative groups
6) Which new interest group helped elect Ronald Reagan?
A) Focus on the Family
B) the Moral Majority
C) Unsafe at Any Speed
D) Onward Christian Soldiers
E) Public Citizen, Inc.
7) Which of the following interest groups was the most instrumental in electing Republican
members of Congress in 1994 and in electing George W. Bush?
A) the National Electric Light Association
B) the 700 Club
C) the Christian Coalition
D) Common Cause
E) the National Association of Manufacturers
8) Who founded the Christian Coalition?
A) Ted Haggard
B) Jerry Falwell
C) Pat Robertson
D) James Dobson
E) Jimmy Swaggart
9) What is a voter guide?
A) instructions on how to use voting technology distributed by local election boards
B) summaries of candidatesʹ issue positions distributed by interest groups
C) lists of candidates officially endorsed by interest groups
D) descriptions of the job experiences of candidates distributed by public interest groups
E) calendars distributed by interest groups that contain the dates of upcoming elections
10) Which interest group has been successful under the George W. Bush administration and has
been described as ʺa fraternity of powerful and prestigious business leaders that tells
ʹbusinessʹs side of the storyʹ to legislators, bureaucrats, White House personnel, and other
interested public officials.ʺ
A) A Rising Tide Lifts All Boats
B) the Council for Economic Growth
C) the National Association of Manufacturers
D) the Chamber of Commerce
E) the Business Roundtable
A) MoveOn.org
B) AARP
C) U.S. Chamber of Commerce
D) National Rifle Association
E) NAACP
2) The right of citizens to form groups and to petition the government for changes in public
policies is protected by
A) the First Amendment.
B) the interest group clause.
C) the supremacy clause.
D) the interstate commerce clause.
E) the takings clause.
3) What did the Clayton Act do?
A) It allowed labor unions to form and guaranteed their right to strike.
B) It established open shop laws.
C) It granted vast swaths of land to the Central Pacific Railroad.
D) It allowed Standard Oil to drill on publicly owned land in Pennsylvania.
E) It required interest groups to share their membership lists with the government.
4) All of the following groups formed or reenergized during the 1960s or the 1970s EXCEPT
A) the American Civil Liberties Union.
B) the NAACP.
C) the Mexican American Legal Defense and Education Fund.
D) Common Cause.
E) the Christian Coalition.
5) During the 1960s and 1970s, what kinds of interest groups were most successful?
A) public interest and civil rights groups
B) conservative and Republican interest groups
C) religious and social conservative interest groups
D) gay and lesbian interest groups
E) faith-based and community imitative groups
6) Which new interest group helped elect Ronald Reagan?
A) Focus on the Family
B) the Moral Majority
C) Unsafe at Any Speed
D) Onward Christian Soldiers
E) Public Citizen, Inc.
7) Which of the following interest groups was the most instrumental in electing Republican
members of Congress in 1994 and in electing George W. Bush?
A) the National Electric Light Association
B) the 700 Club
C) the Christian Coalition
D) Common Cause
E) the National Association of Manufacturers
8) Who founded the Christian Coalition?
A) Ted Haggard
B) Jerry Falwell
C) Pat Robertson
D) James Dobson
E) Jimmy Swaggart
9) What is a voter guide?
A) instructions on how to use voting technology distributed by local election boards
B) summaries of candidatesʹ issue positions distributed by interest groups
C) lists of candidates officially endorsed by interest groups
D) descriptions of the job experiences of candidates distributed by public interest groups
E) calendars distributed by interest groups that contain the dates of upcoming elections
10) Which interest group has been successful under the George W. Bush administration and has
been described as ʺa fraternity of powerful and prestigious business leaders that tells
ʹbusinessʹs side of the storyʹ to legislators, bureaucrats, White House personnel, and other
interested public officials.ʺ
A) A Rising Tide Lifts All Boats
B) the Council for Economic Growth
C) the National Association of Manufacturers
D) the Chamber of Commerce
E) the Business Roundtable
Chapter 16.3 Pages 594 to 602
1) The percentage of the work force in labor unions was highest in
A) 1900 B) 1924 C) 1950 D) 1986 E) 2005
2) The activities of a group or organization that seeks to influence legislation and persuade
political leaders to support a groupʹs positions is called
A) realpolitik.
B) patronage.
C) lobbying.
D) gentrification.
E) ʺpolitics by other means.ʺ
3) Interest groups tend to focus most of their efforts on
A) getting out the vote.
B) rating candidates or officeholders and creating voter guides.
C) endorsing candidates.
D) lobbying.
E) direct mail solicitations.
4) Which of the following lobbying techniques are interest groups most likely to engage in?
A) running advertisements
B) endorsing candidates
C) contacting government officials
D) engaging in protests
E) doing favors for officials who need assistance
5) President George W. Bushʹs Presidentʹs Emergency Plan for AIDS Relief (PEPFAR) emphasizes
A) condom use.
B) vaccinations.
C) abstinence.
D) circumcision.
E) whatever tools AIDS prevention groups determine are most effective.
6) Many of the most effective lobbyists are
A) former members of Congress.
B) purveyors of false or misleading information.
C) current White House or Cabinet officers.
D) socially awkward.
E) uninformed about the issues for which they lobby.
7) Lobbyists tend to concentrate their efforts on
A) the judicial branch.
B) the president.
C) representatives who share their policy preferences.
D) representatives who do not share their policy preferences and therefore need to be
persuaded.
E) members of the House of Representatives who are not up for reelection for at least four
years.
8) Interest groups lobby the federal courts through
A) direct payments to judges and justices in exchange for favorable decisions.
B) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ pensions.
C) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ reelection committee.
D) sponsoring lawsuits and filing briefs.
E) All of the above.
9) Why did Antonin Scalia miss the swearing in of Chief Justice John Roberts?
A) Scalia was protesting Robertsʹ moderate policy preferences.
B) Scalia boycotted the event in protest for being passed over the Chief Justice nomination.
C) Scalia was in Colorado golfing and attending a legal conference paid for by the Federalist
Society.
D) One member of the Supreme Court must miss the swearing-in ceremony in case there is
a tragedy that takes the lives of the other justices.
E) Scalia was busy lobbying members of Congress to pass the ban on late-term abortions.
10) What is grassroots lobbying?
A) interest group activity aimed at getting citizens to contact their representatives
B) lobbying efforts aimed at those who can influence public officials, such as the major
contributors to their campaigns
C) lobbying efforts aimed at increasing agricultural subsidies
D) attempting to influence public policies by providing expensive gifts or junkets to
members of Congress
E) lobbying efforts aimed at maintaining the status quo
A) 1900 B) 1924 C) 1950 D) 1986 E) 2005
2) The activities of a group or organization that seeks to influence legislation and persuade
political leaders to support a groupʹs positions is called
A) realpolitik.
B) patronage.
C) lobbying.
D) gentrification.
E) ʺpolitics by other means.ʺ
3) Interest groups tend to focus most of their efforts on
A) getting out the vote.
B) rating candidates or officeholders and creating voter guides.
C) endorsing candidates.
D) lobbying.
E) direct mail solicitations.
4) Which of the following lobbying techniques are interest groups most likely to engage in?
A) running advertisements
B) endorsing candidates
C) contacting government officials
D) engaging in protests
E) doing favors for officials who need assistance
5) President George W. Bushʹs Presidentʹs Emergency Plan for AIDS Relief (PEPFAR) emphasizes
A) condom use.
B) vaccinations.
C) abstinence.
D) circumcision.
E) whatever tools AIDS prevention groups determine are most effective.
6) Many of the most effective lobbyists are
A) former members of Congress.
B) purveyors of false or misleading information.
C) current White House or Cabinet officers.
D) socially awkward.
E) uninformed about the issues for which they lobby.
7) Lobbyists tend to concentrate their efforts on
A) the judicial branch.
B) the president.
C) representatives who share their policy preferences.
D) representatives who do not share their policy preferences and therefore need to be
persuaded.
E) members of the House of Representatives who are not up for reelection for at least four
years.
8) Interest groups lobby the federal courts through
A) direct payments to judges and justices in exchange for favorable decisions.
B) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ pensions.
C) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ reelection committee.
D) sponsoring lawsuits and filing briefs.
E) All of the above.
9) Why did Antonin Scalia miss the swearing in of Chief Justice John Roberts?
A) Scalia was protesting Robertsʹ moderate policy preferences.
B) Scalia boycotted the event in protest for being passed over the Chief Justice nomination.
C) Scalia was in Colorado golfing and attending a legal conference paid for by the Federalist
Society.
D) One member of the Supreme Court must miss the swearing-in ceremony in case there is
a tragedy that takes the lives of the other justices.
E) Scalia was busy lobbying members of Congress to pass the ban on late-term abortions.
10) What is grassroots lobbying?
A) interest group activity aimed at getting citizens to contact their representatives
B) lobbying efforts aimed at those who can influence public officials, such as the major
contributors to their campaigns
C) lobbying efforts aimed at increasing agricultural subsidies
D) attempting to influence public policies by providing expensive gifts or junkets to
members of Congress
E) lobbying efforts aimed at maintaining the status quo
Chapter 16.4 Pages 604 to 611
1) In 1995, Congress passed lobbying reform that focuses on
A) disclosure requirements.
B) prohibiting lobbying by former members of Congress.
C) prohibiting lobbying on behalf of issues that are the subjects of pending legislation.
D) limiting the amount of money that can be spent for lobbying.
E) reducing the influence of the Federalist Society.
2) Which of the following is a provision of the Ethics in Government Act?
A) Former members of Congress are prohibited from becoming lobbyists.
B) Former executive branch employees can not become lobbyists on any matter before their
former agency for one year.
C) Federal judges can not accept education junkets from interest groups.
D) Current members of Congress can not lobby other members of Congress.
E) Former members of Congress are prohibited from eating in the Capitol dining rooms if
they have become lobbyists.
3) In recent years, EMILYʹs List has helped to elect
A) Republican women.
B) pro-choice women.
C) Log Cabin Republicans.
D) George W. Bush and other prominent Republicans.
E) members of labor unions.
4) Most interest group members are
A) policy entrepreneurs.
B) patrons.
C) actively involved in group activities.
D) dues-paying members who do not participate in other ways.
E) leaders.
5) Those who join interest groups tend to
A) have higher levels of income and education.
B) be blue-collar workers.
C) be members of a labor union.
D) be deeply involved in the groups activities and meetings.
E) limit their membership to the one group they care most strongly about.
6) What is a collective good?
A) something of value that cannot be withheld from a nonmember
B) something of value that only goes to dues-paying members
C) something that improves society
D) something an interest group might offer its members to avoid the free rider problem
E) something that promotes economic growth
7) The free rider problem is
A) an incentive to join an interest group.
B) a disincentive to join an interest group.
C) the ability of group members to join aligned groups at discounted rates.
D) the tendency for citizens to belong to more than one group.
E) the tendency for group members to pay dues but not otherwise participate in other
group activities.
8) Why does the American Automobile Association offer roadside assistance to its members?
A) because it is required by law to provide roadside assistance
B) because it is a collective good
C) because it is a material benefit that can help overcome the free rider problem
D) because a patron donated a lot of money on the condition that roadside assistance be
given ʺto all stranded motoristsʺ
E) because interest groups are prohibited from giving donations to political campaigns
9) George Soros is a
A) patron to progressive organizations.
B) patron to libertarian organizations.
C) patron to conservative organizations.
D) rank-and-file member of MoveOn.org.
E) rank-and-file member of the Christian Coalition.
10) Some people argue that government should not impose regulations on interest group activities
because
A) there is an upper-class bias in interest group activity.
B) doing so may stifle political speech.
C) the First Amendment applies to individuals and not to groups.
D) citizens have the right to know how and in what capacity an interest group is acting.
E) the government needs to ensure that different groups have an equal ability to influence
government.
A) disclosure requirements.
B) prohibiting lobbying by former members of Congress.
C) prohibiting lobbying on behalf of issues that are the subjects of pending legislation.
D) limiting the amount of money that can be spent for lobbying.
E) reducing the influence of the Federalist Society.
2) Which of the following is a provision of the Ethics in Government Act?
A) Former members of Congress are prohibited from becoming lobbyists.
B) Former executive branch employees can not become lobbyists on any matter before their
former agency for one year.
C) Federal judges can not accept education junkets from interest groups.
D) Current members of Congress can not lobby other members of Congress.
E) Former members of Congress are prohibited from eating in the Capitol dining rooms if
they have become lobbyists.
3) In recent years, EMILYʹs List has helped to elect
A) Republican women.
B) pro-choice women.
C) Log Cabin Republicans.
D) George W. Bush and other prominent Republicans.
E) members of labor unions.
4) Most interest group members are
A) policy entrepreneurs.
B) patrons.
C) actively involved in group activities.
D) dues-paying members who do not participate in other ways.
E) leaders.
5) Those who join interest groups tend to
A) have higher levels of income and education.
B) be blue-collar workers.
C) be members of a labor union.
D) be deeply involved in the groups activities and meetings.
E) limit their membership to the one group they care most strongly about.
6) What is a collective good?
A) something of value that cannot be withheld from a nonmember
B) something of value that only goes to dues-paying members
C) something that improves society
D) something an interest group might offer its members to avoid the free rider problem
E) something that promotes economic growth
7) The free rider problem is
A) an incentive to join an interest group.
B) a disincentive to join an interest group.
C) the ability of group members to join aligned groups at discounted rates.
D) the tendency for citizens to belong to more than one group.
E) the tendency for group members to pay dues but not otherwise participate in other
group activities.
8) Why does the American Automobile Association offer roadside assistance to its members?
A) because it is required by law to provide roadside assistance
B) because it is a collective good
C) because it is a material benefit that can help overcome the free rider problem
D) because a patron donated a lot of money on the condition that roadside assistance be
given ʺto all stranded motoristsʺ
E) because interest groups are prohibited from giving donations to political campaigns
9) George Soros is a
A) patron to progressive organizations.
B) patron to libertarian organizations.
C) patron to conservative organizations.
D) rank-and-file member of MoveOn.org.
E) rank-and-file member of the Christian Coalition.
10) Some people argue that government should not impose regulations on interest group activities
because
A) there is an upper-class bias in interest group activity.
B) doing so may stifle political speech.
C) the First Amendment applies to individuals and not to groups.
D) citizens have the right to know how and in what capacity an interest group is acting.
E) the government needs to ensure that different groups have an equal ability to influence
government.
12.1 Pages 419 to 425
1) During their 2004 convention, Democrats argued that
A) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts slashed the deficit.
B) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts benefited the wealthy.
C) Congress should enact a ban on late-term abortions.
D) the federal government should define marriage.
E) All of the above.
2) During their 2004 convention, Republicans highlighted
A) the success of George W. Bushʹs Supreme Court appointees.
B) the shrinking national debt.
C) the success of the war in Iraq.
D) the importance of strong social welfare policies.
E) All of the above.
3) Identify the following position from one of the major partyʹs 2004 platform: ʺ....economic
prosperity is essential to environmental progress. That belief is supported by compelling
historical evidence.ʺ
A) the Democratic position on economic development
B) the Republican position on economic development
C) the Democratic position on the environment
D) the Republican position on the environment
E) The Democratic position on the trade deficit
4) The office holders who organize themselves and pursue policy objectives under a party label
are referred to as the
A) organizational party.
B) campaign party.
C) governmental party.
D) objectives party.
E) political party.
5) What did George Washington say about political parties in his farewell address?
A) ʺDemocracy is unthinkable save in terms of parties.ʺ
B) ʺMy fellow Americans, I must warn you that the party is over.ʺ
C) ʺIt has become increasingly clear to me that the party has just begun! Long live
American political parties.ʺ
D) Washington begged his fellow countrymen to disband the Federalist Party and institute
the Whig Party.
E) Washington warned the nation against parties.
6) Party politics was nearly suspended during the
A) Roaring Twenties.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Progressive Era.
D) Populist Era.
E) 1920s.
7) What does the Constitution say about political parties?
A) ʺElections shall be Mediated by exactly two Political Parties.ʺ
B) ʺCongress shall organize itself by Majority and Minority Party, in accordance with the
Results of the most recent Election.ʺ
C) ʺThe number of Political Parties shall not be limited, but no Party shall gain access to any
Ballot or Ticket without the receipt of five per cent of the Vote in the preceding Election.ʺ
D) ʺAs Democracy is unthinkable save in terms of Parties, the Right of the People to form
and keep Parties shall not be abridged.ʺ
E) The Constitution does not mention political parties.
8) In 1832, who was nominated in the first large national party nominating convention?
A) Henry Clay
B) Andrew Jackson
C) James Monroe
D) James Madison
E) John Adams
9) A party organization that recruits its members with tangible incentives such as jobs and is
characterized by a high degree of control over member activity is called a
A) mob. B) machine. C) patron. D) boss. E) patriarch.
10) 1874 to 1912 represents the
A) Responsible Party System.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Age of Aquarius.
D) Christian Democratic Party Era.
E) Golden Age of parties.
A) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts slashed the deficit.
B) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts benefited the wealthy.
C) Congress should enact a ban on late-term abortions.
D) the federal government should define marriage.
E) All of the above.
2) During their 2004 convention, Republicans highlighted
A) the success of George W. Bushʹs Supreme Court appointees.
B) the shrinking national debt.
C) the success of the war in Iraq.
D) the importance of strong social welfare policies.
E) All of the above.
3) Identify the following position from one of the major partyʹs 2004 platform: ʺ....economic
prosperity is essential to environmental progress. That belief is supported by compelling
historical evidence.ʺ
A) the Democratic position on economic development
B) the Republican position on economic development
C) the Democratic position on the environment
D) the Republican position on the environment
E) The Democratic position on the trade deficit
4) The office holders who organize themselves and pursue policy objectives under a party label
are referred to as the
A) organizational party.
B) campaign party.
C) governmental party.
D) objectives party.
E) political party.
5) What did George Washington say about political parties in his farewell address?
A) ʺDemocracy is unthinkable save in terms of parties.ʺ
B) ʺMy fellow Americans, I must warn you that the party is over.ʺ
C) ʺIt has become increasingly clear to me that the party has just begun! Long live
American political parties.ʺ
D) Washington begged his fellow countrymen to disband the Federalist Party and institute
the Whig Party.
E) Washington warned the nation against parties.
6) Party politics was nearly suspended during the
A) Roaring Twenties.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Progressive Era.
D) Populist Era.
E) 1920s.
7) What does the Constitution say about political parties?
A) ʺElections shall be Mediated by exactly two Political Parties.ʺ
B) ʺCongress shall organize itself by Majority and Minority Party, in accordance with the
Results of the most recent Election.ʺ
C) ʺThe number of Political Parties shall not be limited, but no Party shall gain access to any
Ballot or Ticket without the receipt of five per cent of the Vote in the preceding Election.ʺ
D) ʺAs Democracy is unthinkable save in terms of Parties, the Right of the People to form
and keep Parties shall not be abridged.ʺ
E) The Constitution does not mention political parties.
8) In 1832, who was nominated in the first large national party nominating convention?
A) Henry Clay
B) Andrew Jackson
C) James Monroe
D) James Madison
E) John Adams
9) A party organization that recruits its members with tangible incentives such as jobs and is
characterized by a high degree of control over member activity is called a
A) mob. B) machine. C) patron. D) boss. E) patriarch.
10) 1874 to 1912 represents the
A) Responsible Party System.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Age of Aquarius.
D) Christian Democratic Party Era.
E) Golden Age of parties.
12.2 Pages 426 to 433
1) Who ran a political machine?
A) William Tweed
B) Andrew Jackson
C) John Fre´mont
D) Barry Goldwater
E) Peter Wright
2) In a direct primary system, who selects party candidates?
A) political machines
B) party bosses
C) qualified voters
D) party conventions
E) party leaders
3) Progressives embraced
A) civil service laws.
B) political machines.
C) patronage.
D) strong political parties.
E) party conventions.
4) Civil service laws require
A) compulsory voting.
B) compulsory education through the tenth grade.
C) patronage.
D) appointment based on merit.
E) ticket splitting.
5) The decline in political parties brought about by the Progressive era reforms has led to
A) party machines.
B) candidate-centered politics.
C) party realignment.
D) secular realignment.
E) logrolling.
6) A shifting of party coalition groupings in the electorate that remains in place for several
elections is known as
A) punctuated misalignment.
B) an electoral tsunami.
C) ticket splitting.
D) party realignment.
E) a coalitional government.
7) Which of the following was a critical election?
A) James Polk in 1844
B) Franklin Pierce in 1852
C) Grover Cleveland in 1884
D) Franklin Roosevelt in 1932
E) Dwight Eisenhower in 1952
8) Where can one find proportional representation?
A) in the Senate
B) in the presidency
C) in Europe
D) in the California legislature
E) in the Nebraska legislature
9) Congressional elections use a
A) winner-take-all system.
B) proportional representation system.
C) instant runoff system.
D) party machine system.
E) platform party system.
10) Who ran under the Bull Moose Party?
A) George Wallace
B) Ross Perot
C) Theodore Roosevelt
D) Oliver North
E) Bernie Sanders
A) William Tweed
B) Andrew Jackson
C) John Fre´mont
D) Barry Goldwater
E) Peter Wright
2) In a direct primary system, who selects party candidates?
A) political machines
B) party bosses
C) qualified voters
D) party conventions
E) party leaders
3) Progressives embraced
A) civil service laws.
B) political machines.
C) patronage.
D) strong political parties.
E) party conventions.
4) Civil service laws require
A) compulsory voting.
B) compulsory education through the tenth grade.
C) patronage.
D) appointment based on merit.
E) ticket splitting.
5) The decline in political parties brought about by the Progressive era reforms has led to
A) party machines.
B) candidate-centered politics.
C) party realignment.
D) secular realignment.
E) logrolling.
6) A shifting of party coalition groupings in the electorate that remains in place for several
elections is known as
A) punctuated misalignment.
B) an electoral tsunami.
C) ticket splitting.
D) party realignment.
E) a coalitional government.
7) Which of the following was a critical election?
A) James Polk in 1844
B) Franklin Pierce in 1852
C) Grover Cleveland in 1884
D) Franklin Roosevelt in 1932
E) Dwight Eisenhower in 1952
8) Where can one find proportional representation?
A) in the Senate
B) in the presidency
C) in Europe
D) in the California legislature
E) in the Nebraska legislature
9) Congressional elections use a
A) winner-take-all system.
B) proportional representation system.
C) instant runoff system.
D) party machine system.
E) platform party system.
10) Who ran under the Bull Moose Party?
A) George Wallace
B) Ross Perot
C) Theodore Roosevelt
D) Oliver North
E) Bernie Sanders
Chapter 12.3 Pages 434 to 440
1) Who ran under the Reform Party?
A) Ross Perot
B) Jesse Ventura
C) Pat Buchanan
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
2) What is the most important function of national party chair?
A) to draft the platform
B) to raise money
C) to recruit candidates
D) to organize workshops for party volunteers
E) to distribute patronage
3) Every four years the parties nominate a presidential candidate through a
A) party platform.
B) smoke-filled-room procedure.
C) national convention.
D) conference committee.
E) national nominating committee.
4) The smallest unit of the party organization is
A) the county.
B) the district.
C) the region.
D) the state.
E) the precinct.
5) Organizations created to circumvent the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act that can receive
unlimited campaign donations are called
A) cluster clucks.
B) money grinders.
C) BCRAnaires.
D) dolezzas.
E) 527 groups.
6) Think tanks influence
A) party positions.
B) campaign funding.
C) congressional reformation.
D) social capital.
E) secular realignments.
7) Which of the following think tanks is more scholarly and less partisan?
A) the American Enterprise Institute
B) the Heritage Foundation
C) the Cato Institute
D) the Brookings Institution
E) the Open Society Institute
8) Which of the following was virtually unregulated?
A) soft money
B) hard money
C) campaign contributions to a political party
D) campaign contributions to a candidate
E) campaign contributions to a political action committee
9) Which of the following most accurately describes fundraising in the 2006 midterm elections?
A) Democrats raised nearly $100 million more than Republicans raised.
B) Republicans raised nearly $100 million more than Democrats raised.
C) Democrats and Republicans raised nearly equal amounts of money.
D) Democrats raised about half as much money as Republicans raised.
E) Republicans raised more money than the Democrats because Republicans accepted soft
money while Democrats did not.
10) Howard Dean revolutionized the use of
A) the plum book for rewarding patronage.
B) the Internet for raising campaign money.
C) the ʺMain Streetʺ Internet site.
D) soft money.
E) EMILYʹs List.
A) Ross Perot
B) Jesse Ventura
C) Pat Buchanan
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
2) What is the most important function of national party chair?
A) to draft the platform
B) to raise money
C) to recruit candidates
D) to organize workshops for party volunteers
E) to distribute patronage
3) Every four years the parties nominate a presidential candidate through a
A) party platform.
B) smoke-filled-room procedure.
C) national convention.
D) conference committee.
E) national nominating committee.
4) The smallest unit of the party organization is
A) the county.
B) the district.
C) the region.
D) the state.
E) the precinct.
5) Organizations created to circumvent the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act that can receive
unlimited campaign donations are called
A) cluster clucks.
B) money grinders.
C) BCRAnaires.
D) dolezzas.
E) 527 groups.
6) Think tanks influence
A) party positions.
B) campaign funding.
C) congressional reformation.
D) social capital.
E) secular realignments.
7) Which of the following think tanks is more scholarly and less partisan?
A) the American Enterprise Institute
B) the Heritage Foundation
C) the Cato Institute
D) the Brookings Institution
E) the Open Society Institute
8) Which of the following was virtually unregulated?
A) soft money
B) hard money
C) campaign contributions to a political party
D) campaign contributions to a candidate
E) campaign contributions to a political action committee
9) Which of the following most accurately describes fundraising in the 2006 midterm elections?
A) Democrats raised nearly $100 million more than Republicans raised.
B) Republicans raised nearly $100 million more than Democrats raised.
C) Democrats and Republicans raised nearly equal amounts of money.
D) Democrats raised about half as much money as Republicans raised.
E) Republicans raised more money than the Democrats because Republicans accepted soft
money while Democrats did not.
10) Howard Dean revolutionized the use of
A) the plum book for rewarding patronage.
B) the Internet for raising campaign money.
C) the ʺMain Streetʺ Internet site.
D) soft money.
E) EMILYʹs List.
Chapter 12.4 Pages 443 to 454
1) Party discipline is enforced through
A) reducing congressional salaries.
B) committee appointments.
C) competitive elections.
D) loyalty oaths.
E) soft money donations.
2) Which of the following has contributed to increased congressional party unity?
A) increasing ideological heterogeneity
B) the increasing conservativeness of southern Democrats
C) partisan gerrymandering
D) divided government
E) earmarks
3) Party-oriented presidents have included
A) Eisenhower.
B) Johnson.
C) Nixon.
D) Carter.
E) Reagan.
4) The number of self-declared independents has
A) increased to about 40 percent of the population.
B) increased to about 10 percent of the population.
C) declined by fifty percent in the last decade.
D) declined by twenty-five percent in the last decade.
E) stayed constant since 1990.
5) Which of the following is a ʺred stateʺ?
A) New York
B) Oregon
C) California
D) Massachusetts
E) Alaska
6) Members of which of the following groups are most likely to be Democrats?
A) the working class
B) the wealthy
C) men
D) middle-aged Americans
E) Asians
7) Which of the following best describes the partisanship of Hispanics?
A) The Republican Party has successfully wooed large numbers of Hispanic voters.
B) The number of Democratic Hispanics is about equal to the number of Republican
Hispanics.
C) Hispanics used to be mostly Democrats, but they have recently become mostly
Republicans.
D) Hispanics used to be mostly Republicans, but they have recently become mostly
Democrats.
E) Although George W. Bush has tried to attract Hispanics to the Republican Party,
Hispanic Democrats outnumber Hispanic Republicans by three to one.
8) Which of the following helps explain why middle-aged voters lean towards the Republican
Party?
A) They are anticipating retirement and the need for income security from the government.
B) They are anticipating retirement and the need for medical care from the government.
C) They are at the height of their careers and their earnings potentials.
D) They remember how hard it was to struggle to pay for college.
E) They can relate to todayʹs youth.
9) Todayʹs young voters are most likely to be
A) Republican.
B) Green.
C) Democratic.
D) Libertarian.
E) Communist.
10) Which cohort of young voters was most likely to support the Republican Party?
A) those who grew up with peacenik parents of the 1960s
B) those who grew up in the 1970s
C) those who grew up during Ronald Reaganʹs tenure in office
D) those who grew up in the aftermath of the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks
E) those who grew up during Watergate
11) Of the following, who is most likely to be a Republican?
A) white-collar workers
B) trial lawyers
C) educators
D) labor union members
E) those with advanced degrees
12) A general decline in partisan identification and loyalty is sometimes called
A) partisan malaise.
B) dealignment.
C) misanthropy.
D) Reaganʹs Revenge.
E) Clintonʹs Collapse.
A) reducing congressional salaries.
B) committee appointments.
C) competitive elections.
D) loyalty oaths.
E) soft money donations.
2) Which of the following has contributed to increased congressional party unity?
A) increasing ideological heterogeneity
B) the increasing conservativeness of southern Democrats
C) partisan gerrymandering
D) divided government
E) earmarks
3) Party-oriented presidents have included
A) Eisenhower.
B) Johnson.
C) Nixon.
D) Carter.
E) Reagan.
4) The number of self-declared independents has
A) increased to about 40 percent of the population.
B) increased to about 10 percent of the population.
C) declined by fifty percent in the last decade.
D) declined by twenty-five percent in the last decade.
E) stayed constant since 1990.
5) Which of the following is a ʺred stateʺ?
A) New York
B) Oregon
C) California
D) Massachusetts
E) Alaska
6) Members of which of the following groups are most likely to be Democrats?
A) the working class
B) the wealthy
C) men
D) middle-aged Americans
E) Asians
7) Which of the following best describes the partisanship of Hispanics?
A) The Republican Party has successfully wooed large numbers of Hispanic voters.
B) The number of Democratic Hispanics is about equal to the number of Republican
Hispanics.
C) Hispanics used to be mostly Democrats, but they have recently become mostly
Republicans.
D) Hispanics used to be mostly Republicans, but they have recently become mostly
Democrats.
E) Although George W. Bush has tried to attract Hispanics to the Republican Party,
Hispanic Democrats outnumber Hispanic Republicans by three to one.
8) Which of the following helps explain why middle-aged voters lean towards the Republican
Party?
A) They are anticipating retirement and the need for income security from the government.
B) They are anticipating retirement and the need for medical care from the government.
C) They are at the height of their careers and their earnings potentials.
D) They remember how hard it was to struggle to pay for college.
E) They can relate to todayʹs youth.
9) Todayʹs young voters are most likely to be
A) Republican.
B) Green.
C) Democratic.
D) Libertarian.
E) Communist.
10) Which cohort of young voters was most likely to support the Republican Party?
A) those who grew up with peacenik parents of the 1960s
B) those who grew up in the 1970s
C) those who grew up during Ronald Reaganʹs tenure in office
D) those who grew up in the aftermath of the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks
E) those who grew up during Watergate
11) Of the following, who is most likely to be a Republican?
A) white-collar workers
B) trial lawyers
C) educators
D) labor union members
E) those with advanced degrees
12) A general decline in partisan identification and loyalty is sometimes called
A) partisan malaise.
B) dealignment.
C) misanthropy.
D) Reaganʹs Revenge.
E) Clintonʹs Collapse.
15.4 Pages 569 to 575
1) What position did Tony Snow have before becoming George W. Bushʹs press secretary?
A) He was the chair of George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection committee.
B) He was the White House chief of staff.
C) He was a member of the House of Representatives from Virginia.
D) He was a Fox News commentator.
E) He was a Texas oil tycoon and a major contributor to George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection.
2) Which of the following best describes George W. Bushʹs relationship with the press?
A) He is exceedingly accessible to the press.
B) He is frequently available to answer journalistsʹ questions in both formal and informal
settings.
C) He is very tight-lipped.
D) He has a jovial relationship with the press.
E) He has an open-door policy for journalists.
3) Which of the following best describes media coverage of the George W. Bush presidency?
A) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs leadership.
B) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs prowess for public policies.
C) Journalists cover the Bush presidency in an overwhelmingly negative light.
D) Journalists cover the Bush presidency as exceedingly honest and forthright.
E) Journalists cover the Bush presidency with awe and admiration for the presidentʹs
successes.
4) Media coverage of Congress by network affiliates tends to concentrates on
A) Newt Gingrich and Strom Thurmond.
B) local members of Congress.
C) foreign policy.
D) freshmen representatives.
E) economic issues.
5) Why did the ʺmission accomplishedʺ banner backfire on George W. Bush?
A) because ordinary voters did not understand the banner
B) because the banner seemed to contradict what he said in his speech
C) because the banner cost over $100,000
D) because it fell down while he was giving his speech, making the military look inept
E) because it later underscored Bushʹs unrealistic expectations for the war in Iraq
6) Which political institution receives the least media coverage?
A) the House of Representatives
B) the Senate
C) the president
D) Congress
E) the Supreme Court
7) The media have the greatest influence on
A) hardcore liberals.
B) hardcore conservatives.
C) strong Democrats.
D) strong Republicans.
E) independents.
8) The media have the greatest influence on public opinion about
A) neighborhood crime.
B) childrearing.
C) inflation.
D) domestic policies.
E) events in foreign countries.
9) What is agenda setting?
A) the ability of the media to tell the public what issues the public should be thinking about
B) the tendency to remember only those news stories that are consistent with oneʹs
predispositions
C) the ability of the media to influence the publicʹs opinions on issues
D) the mediaʹs focus on scandal and corruption
E) the publicʹs ability to determine what issues the media covers.
10) Which of the following accurately describes American journalists?
A) They tend to be libertarian.
B) They tend to be socially conservative.
C) They tend to be anti-establishment.
D) They tend to be economically conservative.
E) They are just as likely to be registered Democrats as registered Republicans.
11) The mediaʹs coverage of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 suggests that the media may
have a
A) liberal bias.
B) anti-incumbent bias.
C) corporate bias.
D) Democratic bias.
E) status quo bias.
12) Those who claim that the media has a conservative bias point to
A) FOX News.
B) a corporate mentality that is hesitant to criticize possible sponsors.
C) fiscally conservative corporate interests of companies that own the media.
D) the lack of media skepticism given to the Bush administrationʹs arguments for waging
war in Iraq.
E) All of the above.
13) Which of the following best summarizes ideological bias in the media?
A) The media have a strong liberal bias.
B) The media have a strong conservative bias.
C) The media have a liberal bias on social issues and a conservative bias on economic issues.
D) The media have a conservative bias on social issues and a liberal bias on economic issues.
E) Liberals think the media has a conservative bias and conservatives think the media has a
liberal bias.
A) He was the chair of George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection committee.
B) He was the White House chief of staff.
C) He was a member of the House of Representatives from Virginia.
D) He was a Fox News commentator.
E) He was a Texas oil tycoon and a major contributor to George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection.
2) Which of the following best describes George W. Bushʹs relationship with the press?
A) He is exceedingly accessible to the press.
B) He is frequently available to answer journalistsʹ questions in both formal and informal
settings.
C) He is very tight-lipped.
D) He has a jovial relationship with the press.
E) He has an open-door policy for journalists.
3) Which of the following best describes media coverage of the George W. Bush presidency?
A) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs leadership.
B) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs prowess for public policies.
C) Journalists cover the Bush presidency in an overwhelmingly negative light.
D) Journalists cover the Bush presidency as exceedingly honest and forthright.
E) Journalists cover the Bush presidency with awe and admiration for the presidentʹs
successes.
4) Media coverage of Congress by network affiliates tends to concentrates on
A) Newt Gingrich and Strom Thurmond.
B) local members of Congress.
C) foreign policy.
D) freshmen representatives.
E) economic issues.
5) Why did the ʺmission accomplishedʺ banner backfire on George W. Bush?
A) because ordinary voters did not understand the banner
B) because the banner seemed to contradict what he said in his speech
C) because the banner cost over $100,000
D) because it fell down while he was giving his speech, making the military look inept
E) because it later underscored Bushʹs unrealistic expectations for the war in Iraq
6) Which political institution receives the least media coverage?
A) the House of Representatives
B) the Senate
C) the president
D) Congress
E) the Supreme Court
7) The media have the greatest influence on
A) hardcore liberals.
B) hardcore conservatives.
C) strong Democrats.
D) strong Republicans.
E) independents.
8) The media have the greatest influence on public opinion about
A) neighborhood crime.
B) childrearing.
C) inflation.
D) domestic policies.
E) events in foreign countries.
9) What is agenda setting?
A) the ability of the media to tell the public what issues the public should be thinking about
B) the tendency to remember only those news stories that are consistent with oneʹs
predispositions
C) the ability of the media to influence the publicʹs opinions on issues
D) the mediaʹs focus on scandal and corruption
E) the publicʹs ability to determine what issues the media covers.
10) Which of the following accurately describes American journalists?
A) They tend to be libertarian.
B) They tend to be socially conservative.
C) They tend to be anti-establishment.
D) They tend to be economically conservative.
E) They are just as likely to be registered Democrats as registered Republicans.
11) The mediaʹs coverage of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 suggests that the media may
have a
A) liberal bias.
B) anti-incumbent bias.
C) corporate bias.
D) Democratic bias.
E) status quo bias.
12) Those who claim that the media has a conservative bias point to
A) FOX News.
B) a corporate mentality that is hesitant to criticize possible sponsors.
C) fiscally conservative corporate interests of companies that own the media.
D) the lack of media skepticism given to the Bush administrationʹs arguments for waging
war in Iraq.
E) All of the above.
13) Which of the following best summarizes ideological bias in the media?
A) The media have a strong liberal bias.
B) The media have a strong conservative bias.
C) The media have a liberal bias on social issues and a conservative bias on economic issues.
D) The media have a conservative bias on social issues and a liberal bias on economic issues.
E) Liberals think the media has a conservative bias and conservatives think the media has a
liberal bias.
15.3 Pages 564 to 568
1) What did the Supreme Court decide in New York Times Co. v. U. S.?
A) Journalists can be prosecuted for divulging classified information.
B) The government can not censor the press.
C) The New York Times could not publish the Pentagon Papers because they were classified.
D) The New York Times could not publish the Pentagon Papers because they were stolen.
E) The president has ʺinherent powerʺ to halt the publication of news that may harm the
morale of American soldiers.
2) What innovation did the George W. Bush administration establish regarding media coverage
of the 2003 invasion of Iraq?
A) The media could only report on the military action using pre-stationed remote field
cameras.
B) All media coverage of Iraq would need to be delayed for one week to allow the military
to notify the next of kin.
C) Journalists were permitted to embed themselves with various parts of the military.
D) The Bush administration limited news coverage by requiring reporters to conduct
interviews in Arabic.
E) The Bush administration limited news coverage by refusing to transport journalists into
combat areas.
3) Which of the following is most likely to be delivered in person by an officeholder?
A) a press release
B) a press briefing
C) a press conference
D) talking points
E) bad news
4) Information that is provided to a reporter on deep background
A) can only appear in the second half of a story.
B) can only appear in the part of the article that is continued on a later page.
C) can not be released to the public unless the reporter learns the same information from
another source.
D) can not be released to the public under any circumstances.
E) can be used but can not be attributed to the source in any way.
5) Why was New York Times reporter Judith Miller jailed for eighty-five days?
A) She divulged off the record information.
B) She divulged the source of information she had obtained on background.
C) She refused to reveal her source during the investigation into a leak that exposed a CIA
agent.
D) She leaked secret government information.
E) She embarrassed the White House by uncovering pictures of prisoner abuse at Abu
Ghraib.
6) A 2004 60 Minutes story claimed to provide evidence that George W. Bush had received
preferential treatment in the National Guard. What happened after this story ran?
A) Dan Rather received a Pulitzer Prize for investigative journalism.
B) George W. Bush apologized for ʺbeing derelict in my duties to my country.ʺ
C) Conservative bloggers uncovered problems with story and the producer was fired.
D) The producer of the story was attacked by an overzealous Bush supporter.
E) George W. Bush was dishonorably discharged from the military and required to repay
thousands of dollars in salary that he had collected under false pretenses.
7) Why was Lewis ʺScooterʺ Libby indicted in 2005?
A) for leaking classified information to the press
B) for misleading investigators searching for the source of a leak revealing the identity of a
CIA agent
C) for misleading Congress about stockpiles of Iraqi weapons of mass destruction
D) for hindering prosecution of enemy combatants held at Guantanamo Bay, Cuba
E) for falsely implying that confidential information had been stolen from his office
8) In New York Times v. Sullivan, the Supreme Court
A) made it easier to prove libel.
B) prohibited prior restraint of the press.
C) required public officials to prove actual malice to win a libel suit.
D) determined that the New York Times had printed libelous falsehoods against Lyndon
Johnson.
E) declared that a sitting president can not be sued until after his tenure in office is finished.
9) Which president held the fewest press conferences?
A) Franklin Roosevelt
B) Harry Truman
C) John F Kennedy
D) Ronald Reagan
E) George W. Bush
10) The bulk of the media coverage focuses on
A) the president
B) the speaker of the House
C) the Senate majority leader
D) the Chief Justice of the United States
E) the bureaucracy
15.2 Pages 553 to 563
1) People who use the Internet for news tend
A) not to subscribe to newspapers.
B) to disregard traditional media sources.
C) to be highly informed voters who use the Web to update their information.
D) to have blue collar jobs.
E) to be Republicans.
2) Which of the following accurately describes al-Jazeera?
A) It is modeled after CNN.
B) It is uniformly praised throughout the Middle East.
C) It mainly provides entertainment programs.
D) Most of its news is simply government propaganda.
E) All of the above.
3) Which of the following newspapers has the least influence over what stories are covered by
the television news media?
A) the Wall Street Journal
B) USA Today
C) Washington Post
D) New York Times
E) Houston Chronicle
4) Which of the following is a wire service that distributes stories to newspapers around the
world?
A) the New York Times
B) the Christian Science Monitor
C) al-Jazeera
D) the Associated Press
E) the BBC
5) Which of the following trends accurately describes the media in the United States?
A) The number of towns with competing local newspapers has increased.
B) Television networks are increasingly breaking with their parent companies to become
independent.
C) Newspapers are being bought by local governments to ensure that news coverage is
driven by journalist standards instead of corporate profits.
D) Media consolidation has increased in recent years.
E) Americans are consuming more political news than ever before.
6) What is narrowcasting?
A) the tendency of the media to frame political events using well-established stereotypes
B) the tendency for the media to focus on domestic events rather than international events
C) the increasing reliance of the media on political pundits
D) the targeting of media programs at specific segments of the population
E) political coverage that is superficial
7) Republican viewersʹ main source of campaign news is
A) Fox News
B) CNN
C) MSNBC
D) the Daily Show
E) NPR
8) How does narrowcasting further polarize public opinion?
A) Viewers tend to watch news that reinforces their preexisting views.
B) Narrowcasting focuses on government corruption and political misdeeds.
C) Viewers are exposed to a range of information covering divergent views.
D) Narrowcasting encourages voters to reject the status quo and to support change.
E) Narrowcasting has resulted in fewer news outlets and, therefore, less diverse political
coverage.
9) Why are the broadcast media more strictly regulated than the print media?
A) The broadcast media has a long history of political malfeasance.
B) The broadcast media leases public airwaves.
C) The airwaves are an unlimited resource, but there can only be one newspaper in a city.
D) Children are exposed to television but donʹt have access to newspapers.
E) The broadcast media is more dangerous because pictures are more powerful than words.
10) The equal time rule requires that the electronic media
A) cover both liberal and conservative positions on a given issue.
B) cover both Democratic and Republican positions on a given issue.
C) sell advertising time to all candidates if they sell it to any candidate.
D) include all presidential candidates in any political debates they host.
E) devote the same coverage to domestic and to international events.
A) not to subscribe to newspapers.
B) to disregard traditional media sources.
C) to be highly informed voters who use the Web to update their information.
D) to have blue collar jobs.
E) to be Republicans.
2) Which of the following accurately describes al-Jazeera?
A) It is modeled after CNN.
B) It is uniformly praised throughout the Middle East.
C) It mainly provides entertainment programs.
D) Most of its news is simply government propaganda.
E) All of the above.
3) Which of the following newspapers has the least influence over what stories are covered by
the television news media?
A) the Wall Street Journal
B) USA Today
C) Washington Post
D) New York Times
E) Houston Chronicle
4) Which of the following is a wire service that distributes stories to newspapers around the
world?
A) the New York Times
B) the Christian Science Monitor
C) al-Jazeera
D) the Associated Press
E) the BBC
5) Which of the following trends accurately describes the media in the United States?
A) The number of towns with competing local newspapers has increased.
B) Television networks are increasingly breaking with their parent companies to become
independent.
C) Newspapers are being bought by local governments to ensure that news coverage is
driven by journalist standards instead of corporate profits.
D) Media consolidation has increased in recent years.
E) Americans are consuming more political news than ever before.
6) What is narrowcasting?
A) the tendency of the media to frame political events using well-established stereotypes
B) the tendency for the media to focus on domestic events rather than international events
C) the increasing reliance of the media on political pundits
D) the targeting of media programs at specific segments of the population
E) political coverage that is superficial
7) Republican viewersʹ main source of campaign news is
A) Fox News
B) CNN
C) MSNBC
D) the Daily Show
E) NPR
8) How does narrowcasting further polarize public opinion?
A) Viewers tend to watch news that reinforces their preexisting views.
B) Narrowcasting focuses on government corruption and political misdeeds.
C) Viewers are exposed to a range of information covering divergent views.
D) Narrowcasting encourages voters to reject the status quo and to support change.
E) Narrowcasting has resulted in fewer news outlets and, therefore, less diverse political
coverage.
9) Why are the broadcast media more strictly regulated than the print media?
A) The broadcast media has a long history of political malfeasance.
B) The broadcast media leases public airwaves.
C) The airwaves are an unlimited resource, but there can only be one newspaper in a city.
D) Children are exposed to television but donʹt have access to newspapers.
E) The broadcast media is more dangerous because pictures are more powerful than words.
10) The equal time rule requires that the electronic media
A) cover both liberal and conservative positions on a given issue.
B) cover both Democratic and Republican positions on a given issue.
C) sell advertising time to all candidates if they sell it to any candidate.
D) include all presidential candidates in any political debates they host.
E) devote the same coverage to domestic and to international events.
15.1 Pages 545 to 553
1) Which of the following events did NOT cause a public relations problem for the George W.
Bush administration?
A) Bush landing on the USS Abraham Lincoln under a ʺMission Accomplishedʺ banner
B) images of prisoner abuse at Abu Ghraib
C) pictures from New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina
D) payments to Iraqi reporters to write pro-U.S. stories
E) the pardon of Marc Rich for campaign finance violations
2) Which of the following was true regarding the penny press?
A) Newspapers typically cost about 10 cents.
B) They attempted to attract more readers by being nonpartisan.
C) They focused on serious news and avoided publishing political scandals.
D) They were owned and operated by political parties.
E) They were tools used by political machines to reward their supporters and punish their
detractors.
3) Which of the following was a hallmark of yellow journalism?
A) sensationalized reporting
B) high journalistic standards
C) anti-immigrant editorials
D) long and complex feature stories
E) the partisan press
4) Which of the following places the various journalistic periods in the correct chronological
order?
A) muckraking, yellow journalism, the penny press, the partisan press
B) the partisan press, yellow journalism, the penny press, muckraking
C) yellow journalism, the penny press, muckraking, the partisan press
D) the penny press, muckraking, the partisan press, yellow journalism
E) the partisan press, the penny press, yellow journalism, muckraking
5) A form of newspaper publishing during the early twentieth century concerned with reforming
government and business conduct is called
A) the penny press.
B) yellow journalism.
C) muckraking.
D) partisan journalism.
E) pack journalism.
6) Among the publishers who promoted yellow journalism was
A) William Randolph Hearst.
B) James G. Blaine.
C) Upton Sinclair.
D) William Roper.
E) David Sanger.
7) Which president most effectively used the radio to promote his public policies?
A) Calvin Coolidge
B) Franklin Roosevelt
C) Dwight Eisenhower
D) Lyndon Johnson
E) Richard Nixon
8) Which of the following accurately describes AM talk radio?
A) It is popular among liberals.
B) It is popular among minorities.
C) It has a strong conservative bent.
D) It has become more popular than television for getting political news.
E) It presents in-depth news coverage in a nonideological format.
9) Americans are most likely to get their news from
A) newspapers.
B) television.
C) radio.
D) news magazines.
E) the Internet.
10) When compared to older Americans, young Americans are more likely to get their campaign
news from
A) talk radio and C-SPAN.
B) NPR and MSNBC.
C) the Internet and comedy television.
D) newspapers and newsmagazines.
E) Nightline and 60 Minutes.
Thursday, October 11, 2012
2007 FRQ on Federalism
2007 FRQ on Federalism
The framers of the United States Constitution created a federal system.
(a) Define federalism.
(b) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states.
• Categorical grants
• Federal mandates
• Selective incorporation
(c) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the states relative to the federal government.
• Welfare Reform Act of 1996
• Block grants
• Tenth Amendment
2007 FRQ on Federalism
A1. Federalism is defined as the Constitutional division between national and state government in the United States. Each level of government is protected by its own constitution.
B1. Categorical grants have been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states. This is accomplished by the federal government providing grants to states for specific purposes often in exchange for “strings attached.” Often federal categorical grants for highway funds have included provisions such as states adapting a universal standard for their drivers being legally drunk (.08). If states refuse to comply with an order, then the federal funding can be revoked.
B2. Federal mandates have been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states. Unfunded mandates are laws that the federal government establishes for the country that are not subsidized. The Americans with Disabilities Act is an unfunded federal mandate for which all states must be in compliance. States must follow the law (by providing accommodations for disabled persons) or risk legal action. The federal government when passing the law did not provide any money for states to make the necessary legal adoptions.
C1. Block grants have been used to increase the power of the state government relative to the federal government. Block grants were a part of the “devolution revolution” that Republicans hoped to accomplish in the early 1980’s. Block grants are chunks of money given to states by the federal government with few or no strings attached. The states are given wide discretion on how they can use the money.
C2. The Tenth Amendment has been used to increase the power of the state government relative to the federal government. This amendment states that all powers not provided in the Constitution for the national government are “reserved” for the states respectively. The Tenth Amendment has been invoked as a States’ Rights constitutional protection. Many innovations created at the state level are protected under the Tenth Amendment. Gambling in Nevada is an example. Nevada created this revenue raising innovation that other states have adopted.
Friday, October 5, 2012
3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions Pages 96 to 101
1) Which of the following best describes the ability of the various levels of government to work
together in the immediate aftermath of Hurricane Katrina?
A) State, local, and federal governments worked together seamlessly.
B) State and local governments worked with each other seamlessly, but did not coordinate
their activities with the federal government.
C) The government of Louisiana and the federal government worked together seamlessly,
but the Mayor of New Orleans preferred to work independently.
D) State, local, and federal governments were not able to coordinate effectively.
E) While state, local, and federal governments worked together well in the immediate
aftermath of the hurricane, their ability to coordinate dissipated as the crisis unfolded.
2) The most common type of government in the United States is the
A) county government.
B) township government.
C) municipal government.
D) school district.
E) special district.
3) What system of government is used in the United States?
A) a federal system
B) a confederation
C) a fiscal system
D) a unitary system
E) a renal system
4) Which type of government derives all of its power from the states?
A) socialism
B) a federal system
C) a confederation
D) a unitary system
E) a theocracy
5) Article I, section 8 gives Congress the power to pass all laws ʺnecessary and properʺ to
carrying out its enumerated powers. This clause is also known as the
A) enumerated powers clause.
B) reserve powers clause.
C) implied powers clause.
D) full faith and credit clause.
E) expressed powers clause.
6) In a federal system, the states derive their power from ________ and the national government
derives its power from ________.
A) the national government; the state governments
B) the state legislature; Congress
C) the states; the people
D) the people; the states
E) the people; the people
7) Which of the following is a concurrent power?
A) taxation
B) coining money
C) establishing federal courts
D) regulating commerce within a state
E) conducting war
8) Where state law conflicts with national law, national law prevails due to
A) federalism.
B) the supremacy clause.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) full faith and credit.
E) sovereign immunity.
9) Which of the following best describes the powers explicitly granted to state governments by
the Constitution?
A) State governments were given the enumerated powers.
B) State governments were given the expressed powers.
C) State governments were given the implied powers.
D) The powers granted to the state governments are spelled out in Article V of the
Constitution.
E) State government powers are not explicitly spelled out in the Constitution.
10) Identify the following phrase: ʺThe powers not delegated to the United States by the
Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the
people.ʺ
A) the establishment clause
B) the full faith and credit clause
C) the enumerated powers
D) Article I, section 8
E) the Tenth Amendment
together in the immediate aftermath of Hurricane Katrina?
A) State, local, and federal governments worked together seamlessly.
B) State and local governments worked with each other seamlessly, but did not coordinate
their activities with the federal government.
C) The government of Louisiana and the federal government worked together seamlessly,
but the Mayor of New Orleans preferred to work independently.
D) State, local, and federal governments were not able to coordinate effectively.
E) While state, local, and federal governments worked together well in the immediate
aftermath of the hurricane, their ability to coordinate dissipated as the crisis unfolded.
2) The most common type of government in the United States is the
A) county government.
B) township government.
C) municipal government.
D) school district.
E) special district.
3) What system of government is used in the United States?
A) a federal system
B) a confederation
C) a fiscal system
D) a unitary system
E) a renal system
4) Which type of government derives all of its power from the states?
A) socialism
B) a federal system
C) a confederation
D) a unitary system
E) a theocracy
5) Article I, section 8 gives Congress the power to pass all laws ʺnecessary and properʺ to
carrying out its enumerated powers. This clause is also known as the
A) enumerated powers clause.
B) reserve powers clause.
C) implied powers clause.
D) full faith and credit clause.
E) expressed powers clause.
6) In a federal system, the states derive their power from ________ and the national government
derives its power from ________.
A) the national government; the state governments
B) the state legislature; Congress
C) the states; the people
D) the people; the states
E) the people; the people
7) Which of the following is a concurrent power?
A) taxation
B) coining money
C) establishing federal courts
D) regulating commerce within a state
E) conducting war
8) Where state law conflicts with national law, national law prevails due to
A) federalism.
B) the supremacy clause.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) full faith and credit.
E) sovereign immunity.
9) Which of the following best describes the powers explicitly granted to state governments by
the Constitution?
A) State governments were given the enumerated powers.
B) State governments were given the expressed powers.
C) State governments were given the implied powers.
D) The powers granted to the state governments are spelled out in Article V of the
Constitution.
E) State government powers are not explicitly spelled out in the Constitution.
10) Identify the following phrase: ʺThe powers not delegated to the United States by the
Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the
people.ʺ
A) the establishment clause
B) the full faith and credit clause
C) the enumerated powers
D) Article I, section 8
E) the Tenth Amendment
3.2 Pages 101 to 105
1) What are the police powers?
A) those powers granted to Congress by the Constitution
B) those powers granted to the president by the Constitution
C) those powers which are ʺnecessary and properʺ for carrying out the enumerated powers
D) those powers reserved to the states by the Tenth Amendment
E) those powers protected by the supremacy clause
2) only the state governments
B) only the national government
C) only Congress
D) only the president
E) both the state governments and the national government
3) Under the Constitution, governments are prohibited from passing
A) economic regulations.
B) writs of habeas corpus.
C) ex post facto laws.
D) revenue measures.
E) block grants.
4) Why was the Tenth Amendment added to the Constitution?
A) concern among Anti-Federalists that the national government would claim powers
otherwise belonging to the states
B) to ensure that a state could not sue the national government without its permission
C) because the Constitution failed to list powers belonging to the national government
D) in order to minimize the economic hardships of the Founders
E) because Chief Justice John Marshall refused to hear cases involving constitutional issues,
noting that the Constitution does not explicitly grant to power of judicial review to the
judiciary
5) A law declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial is called a(n)
A) bill of attainder.
B) writ of mandamus.
C) ex post facto law.
D) habeas corpus act.
E) ex officio law.
6) The clause that ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding
and enforceable in another is called the ________ clause.
A) privileges and immunities
B) full faith and credit
C) extraordinary rendition
D) bill of attainder
E) supremacy
7) How are local governments established?
A) by an act of Congress
B) by submitting an interstate compact to the attorney general
C) by state governments
D) by application to the United States Court of Federal Claims
E) by executive orders issued by the president
8) In the early 1800s, who was the Chief Justice who oversaw important federalism decisions,
including Marbury v. Madison and Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Robert Bork
B) Oliver Ellsworth
C) Brushrod Washington
D) John Marshall
E) Oliver Wendell Holmes
9) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) Congress could use the necessary and proper clause to charter a national bank.
B) Maryland could not create a state bank because it is an enumerated power given
explicitly to Congress.
C) James McCulloch could not establish a bank in Maryland because he did not own
property in the state.
D) the Declaration of Independence does not carry any legal force.
E) the Commerce Clause is unconstitutionally vague and, therefore, prohibits establishing a
bank.
10) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) state laws trump national laws.
B) the supremacy clause prohibits states from taxing the federal government.
C) the scope of Congressʹs authority to create laws is strictly limited to the enumerated
powers.
D) the full faith and credit clause provides sufficient collateral to establish a national bank.
E) Congress has the power of judicial review over laws passed by the states.
A) those powers granted to Congress by the Constitution
B) those powers granted to the president by the Constitution
C) those powers which are ʺnecessary and properʺ for carrying out the enumerated powers
D) those powers reserved to the states by the Tenth Amendment
E) those powers protected by the supremacy clause
2) only the state governments
B) only the national government
C) only Congress
D) only the president
E) both the state governments and the national government
3) Under the Constitution, governments are prohibited from passing
A) economic regulations.
B) writs of habeas corpus.
C) ex post facto laws.
D) revenue measures.
E) block grants.
4) Why was the Tenth Amendment added to the Constitution?
A) concern among Anti-Federalists that the national government would claim powers
otherwise belonging to the states
B) to ensure that a state could not sue the national government without its permission
C) because the Constitution failed to list powers belonging to the national government
D) in order to minimize the economic hardships of the Founders
E) because Chief Justice John Marshall refused to hear cases involving constitutional issues,
noting that the Constitution does not explicitly grant to power of judicial review to the
judiciary
5) A law declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial is called a(n)
A) bill of attainder.
B) writ of mandamus.
C) ex post facto law.
D) habeas corpus act.
E) ex officio law.
6) The clause that ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding
and enforceable in another is called the ________ clause.
A) privileges and immunities
B) full faith and credit
C) extraordinary rendition
D) bill of attainder
E) supremacy
7) How are local governments established?
A) by an act of Congress
B) by submitting an interstate compact to the attorney general
C) by state governments
D) by application to the United States Court of Federal Claims
E) by executive orders issued by the president
8) In the early 1800s, who was the Chief Justice who oversaw important federalism decisions,
including Marbury v. Madison and Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Robert Bork
B) Oliver Ellsworth
C) Brushrod Washington
D) John Marshall
E) Oliver Wendell Holmes
9) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) Congress could use the necessary and proper clause to charter a national bank.
B) Maryland could not create a state bank because it is an enumerated power given
explicitly to Congress.
C) James McCulloch could not establish a bank in Maryland because he did not own
property in the state.
D) the Declaration of Independence does not carry any legal force.
E) the Commerce Clause is unconstitutionally vague and, therefore, prohibits establishing a
bank.
10) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) state laws trump national laws.
B) the supremacy clause prohibits states from taxing the federal government.
C) the scope of Congressʹs authority to create laws is strictly limited to the enumerated
powers.
D) the full faith and credit clause provides sufficient collateral to establish a national bank.
E) Congress has the power of judicial review over laws passed by the states.
3.3 pages 105 to 108
1) The McCulloch v. Maryland (1816) decision continues to be important today because
A) it established the sovereignty of state governments.
B) it enabled Congress to use the necessary and proper clause to widen its policymaking
scope.
C) the national bank continues to be the foundation of the American dollar.
D) Maryland continues to enjoy immunity from federal laws that regulate banking in every
other state.
E) it established the precedent of stare decisis.
2) What is the significance of the Courtʹs decision in Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Maryland could not create a national bank.
B) Congress must provide ʺdue compensationʺ when it exercises its power of eminent
domain.
C) The president has broad foreign policy powers beyond those explicitly granted in the
Constitution.
D) Congress has broad authority under the commerce clause.
E) The full faith and credit clause does not apply to unmarried couples.
3) The doctrine, applied by the Taney Court, that the national government should not exceed its
enumerated powers is called
A) the full faith and credit doctrine.
B) the doctrine of implied powers.
C) confederation.
D) dual federalism.
E) the emancipation doctrine.
4) In Dred Scott v. Sandford the Supreme Court ruled
A) in favor of Dred Scott.
B) the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional.
C) that slavery could not extend into the territories.
D) for a broad interpretation of the takings clause.
E) that slavery was an immoral ʺstain upon the Union.ʺ
5) In which 1857 decision did the Supreme Court rule that slaves were not citizens, but property?
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Plessy v. Ferguson
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) Dred Scott v. Sandford
E) Gonzales v. Raich
6) The Supreme Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) that
A) separate but equal was inherently unconstitutional.
B) the states had very limited police powers under the Tenth Amendment.
C) racial segregation was constitutional.
D) states could not protect the general welfare of their citizens.
E) all persons born or naturalized in the United States are citizens of the United States.
7) What was the impact of the Sixteenth Amendment on federalism?
A) It increased the power of the state governments by granting them sovereign immunity.
B) It codified the doctrine of dual federalism.
C) It codified the doctrine of concurrent powers.
D) It enhanced statesʹ rights.
E) It enabled the federal government to expand its power by giving it more money to
spend.
8) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) required that U.S. Senators be elected directly by the people.
B) punished the South for the Civil War.
C) enhanced the power of the states.
D) was an unsuccessful attempt to guarantee former slaves the right to vote.
E) successfully guaranteed former slaves the right to vote.
9) The era of dual federalism ended with the
A) Civil War.
B) Great Depression.
C) Sherman Anti-Trust Act.
D) passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) doctrine of implied powers.
10) How did Presidents Calvin Coolidge and Herbert Hoover react to the worsening economic
situations of the 1920s?
A) They launched the New Deal.
B) They created the Works Progress Administration.
C) They abandoned the doctrine of nullification and established the Federal Reserve Board.
D) They did very little, believing it was the responsibility of state governments.
E) They established the Social Security Administration to serve the needs of the elderly and
the impoverished.
A) it established the sovereignty of state governments.
B) it enabled Congress to use the necessary and proper clause to widen its policymaking
scope.
C) the national bank continues to be the foundation of the American dollar.
D) Maryland continues to enjoy immunity from federal laws that regulate banking in every
other state.
E) it established the precedent of stare decisis.
2) What is the significance of the Courtʹs decision in Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Maryland could not create a national bank.
B) Congress must provide ʺdue compensationʺ when it exercises its power of eminent
domain.
C) The president has broad foreign policy powers beyond those explicitly granted in the
Constitution.
D) Congress has broad authority under the commerce clause.
E) The full faith and credit clause does not apply to unmarried couples.
3) The doctrine, applied by the Taney Court, that the national government should not exceed its
enumerated powers is called
A) the full faith and credit doctrine.
B) the doctrine of implied powers.
C) confederation.
D) dual federalism.
E) the emancipation doctrine.
4) In Dred Scott v. Sandford the Supreme Court ruled
A) in favor of Dred Scott.
B) the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional.
C) that slavery could not extend into the territories.
D) for a broad interpretation of the takings clause.
E) that slavery was an immoral ʺstain upon the Union.ʺ
5) In which 1857 decision did the Supreme Court rule that slaves were not citizens, but property?
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Plessy v. Ferguson
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) Dred Scott v. Sandford
E) Gonzales v. Raich
6) The Supreme Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) that
A) separate but equal was inherently unconstitutional.
B) the states had very limited police powers under the Tenth Amendment.
C) racial segregation was constitutional.
D) states could not protect the general welfare of their citizens.
E) all persons born or naturalized in the United States are citizens of the United States.
7) What was the impact of the Sixteenth Amendment on federalism?
A) It increased the power of the state governments by granting them sovereign immunity.
B) It codified the doctrine of dual federalism.
C) It codified the doctrine of concurrent powers.
D) It enhanced statesʹ rights.
E) It enabled the federal government to expand its power by giving it more money to
spend.
8) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) required that U.S. Senators be elected directly by the people.
B) punished the South for the Civil War.
C) enhanced the power of the states.
D) was an unsuccessful attempt to guarantee former slaves the right to vote.
E) successfully guaranteed former slaves the right to vote.
9) The era of dual federalism ended with the
A) Civil War.
B) Great Depression.
C) Sherman Anti-Trust Act.
D) passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) doctrine of implied powers.
10) How did Presidents Calvin Coolidge and Herbert Hoover react to the worsening economic
situations of the 1920s?
A) They launched the New Deal.
B) They created the Works Progress Administration.
C) They abandoned the doctrine of nullification and established the Federal Reserve Board.
D) They did very little, believing it was the responsibility of state governments.
E) They established the Social Security Administration to serve the needs of the elderly and
the impoverished.
3.4 pages 108 to 113
1) What is the New Deal?
A) An expansive use of federal government authority in an attempt to end the Great
Depression.
B) Franklin Rooseveltʹs proposal to strengthen the state governments.
C) Theodore Rooseveltʹs proposal to strengthen the state governments.
D) A failed attempt to restore the doctrine of dual federalism.
E) A successful attempt to restore the doctrine of sovereign immunity.
2) During the early years of the New Deal, the Supreme Court
A) ruled many programs unconstitutional.
B) continued to enforce the supremacy clause, thus ruling New Deal programs
constitutional.
C) cooperated with the administration to combat the depression.
D) worked in favor of programs designed to combat the crisis.
E) argued that ʺextraordinary times call for extraordinary measures.ʺ
3) During the early years of the New Deal, the attitude of the Supreme Court toward federal
economic intervention could be characterized as
A) enthusiastic.
B) laissez-faire.
C) interventionist.
D) activist.
E) collectivist.
4) In response to the Supreme Courtʹs opposition to many New Deal programs, President
Roosevelt suggested
A) impeaching the entire Supreme Court.
B) reducing the pay of sitting Supreme Court justices.
C) increasing the number of justices from nine to 13.
D) disbanding the Supreme Court.
E) giving the Supreme Courtʹs jurisdiction to the U.S. District Court for the District of
Columbia.
5) New Deal programs led to an era of ________ federalism.
A) carrot cake
B) apple pie
C) marble cake
D) cherry turnover
E) upside-down cake
6) Cooperative federalism is characterized by
A) a stronger national government.
B) stronger state governments.
C) a shift in power from the national to state governments.
D) stronger municipal governments.
E) a distinct division of authority between the national and the state governments.
7) What are categorical grants?
A) Money given to the national government for ʺparty building activities.ʺ
B) Money given to state governments for specific purposes.
C) Money borrowed from citizens to pay war debts.
D) Money borrowed from citizens to pay for the New Deal programs.
E) Money allocated by the president to ʺenhance the general welfareʺ of the national
government.
8) After the New Deal, the next major effort to use significant national government resources to
remedy societal problems was
A) Harry S. Trumanʹs ʺWar for the Middle Class.ʺ
B) Dwight Eisenhowerʹs ʺMaster Plan.ʺ
C) John F. Kennedyʹs ʺAsk What Your Country Can Do For Youʺ initiative.
D) Lyndon B. Johnsonʹs ʺGreat Societyʺ program.
E) Jimmy Carterʹs ʺCompassionate Countryʺ program.
9) What did Ronald Reagan have in mind when he advocated for ʺNew Federalismʺ?
A) The national government should return power to the states.
B) The national government should expand its powers by aggressively using the commerce
clause.
C) The national government should regulate economic conditions, but state governments
should determine social policies.
D) States should shoulder a greater burden of paying for Congressional mandates.
E) A return to the relationship between the national government and the state governments
that existed during the New Deal.
10) National laws that direct state or local governments to comply with federal rules or
regulations without providing funds to defray the costs are called
A) unfunded mandates.
B) block grants.
C) the Contract with America.
D) the new federalism.
E) Reaganomics.
A) An expansive use of federal government authority in an attempt to end the Great
Depression.
B) Franklin Rooseveltʹs proposal to strengthen the state governments.
C) Theodore Rooseveltʹs proposal to strengthen the state governments.
D) A failed attempt to restore the doctrine of dual federalism.
E) A successful attempt to restore the doctrine of sovereign immunity.
2) During the early years of the New Deal, the Supreme Court
A) ruled many programs unconstitutional.
B) continued to enforce the supremacy clause, thus ruling New Deal programs
constitutional.
C) cooperated with the administration to combat the depression.
D) worked in favor of programs designed to combat the crisis.
E) argued that ʺextraordinary times call for extraordinary measures.ʺ
3) During the early years of the New Deal, the attitude of the Supreme Court toward federal
economic intervention could be characterized as
A) enthusiastic.
B) laissez-faire.
C) interventionist.
D) activist.
E) collectivist.
4) In response to the Supreme Courtʹs opposition to many New Deal programs, President
Roosevelt suggested
A) impeaching the entire Supreme Court.
B) reducing the pay of sitting Supreme Court justices.
C) increasing the number of justices from nine to 13.
D) disbanding the Supreme Court.
E) giving the Supreme Courtʹs jurisdiction to the U.S. District Court for the District of
Columbia.
5) New Deal programs led to an era of ________ federalism.
A) carrot cake
B) apple pie
C) marble cake
D) cherry turnover
E) upside-down cake
6) Cooperative federalism is characterized by
A) a stronger national government.
B) stronger state governments.
C) a shift in power from the national to state governments.
D) stronger municipal governments.
E) a distinct division of authority between the national and the state governments.
7) What are categorical grants?
A) Money given to the national government for ʺparty building activities.ʺ
B) Money given to state governments for specific purposes.
C) Money borrowed from citizens to pay war debts.
D) Money borrowed from citizens to pay for the New Deal programs.
E) Money allocated by the president to ʺenhance the general welfareʺ of the national
government.
8) After the New Deal, the next major effort to use significant national government resources to
remedy societal problems was
A) Harry S. Trumanʹs ʺWar for the Middle Class.ʺ
B) Dwight Eisenhowerʹs ʺMaster Plan.ʺ
C) John F. Kennedyʹs ʺAsk What Your Country Can Do For Youʺ initiative.
D) Lyndon B. Johnsonʹs ʺGreat Societyʺ program.
E) Jimmy Carterʹs ʺCompassionate Countryʺ program.
9) What did Ronald Reagan have in mind when he advocated for ʺNew Federalismʺ?
A) The national government should return power to the states.
B) The national government should expand its powers by aggressively using the commerce
clause.
C) The national government should regulate economic conditions, but state governments
should determine social policies.
D) States should shoulder a greater burden of paying for Congressional mandates.
E) A return to the relationship between the national government and the state governments
that existed during the New Deal.
10) National laws that direct state or local governments to comply with federal rules or
regulations without providing funds to defray the costs are called
A) unfunded mandates.
B) block grants.
C) the Contract with America.
D) the new federalism.
E) Reaganomics.
Wednesday, October 3, 2012
Reminder
Don't forget about reading Sabato Constitution sections. Tomorrow I will quiz you on section 3. Look it up on this website if you dont know where to find it ;)
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)