2007 FRQ on Federalism
The framers of the United States Constitution created a federal system.
(a) Define federalism.
(b) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states.
• Categorical grants
• Federal mandates
• Selective incorporation
(c) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the states relative to the federal government.
• Welfare Reform Act of 1996
• Block grants
• Tenth Amendment
Friday, September 30, 2011
Wednesday, September 28, 2011
3.3 pages 105 to 108
1) The McCulloch v. Maryland (1816) decision continues to be important today because
A) it established the sovereignty of state governments.
B) it enabled Congress to use the necessary and proper clause to widen its policymaking
scope.
C) the national bank continues to be the foundation of the American dollar.
D) Maryland continues to enjoy immunity from federal laws that regulate banking in every
other state.
E) it established the precedent of stare decisis.
2) What is the significance of the Courtʹs decision in Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Maryland could not create a national bank.
B) Congress must provide ʺdue compensationʺ when it exercises its power of eminent
domain.
C) The president has broad foreign policy powers beyond those explicitly granted in the
Constitution.
D) Congress has broad authority under the commerce clause.
E) The full faith and credit clause does not apply to unmarried couples.
3) The doctrine, applied by the Taney Court, that the national government should not exceed its
enumerated powers is called
A) the full faith and credit doctrine.
B) the doctrine of implied powers.
C) confederation.
D) dual federalism.
E) the emancipation doctrine.
4) In Dred Scott v. Sandford the Supreme Court ruled
A) in favor of Dred Scott.
B) the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional.
C) that slavery could not extend into the territories.
D) for a broad interpretation of the takings clause.
E) that slavery was an immoral ʺstain upon the Union.ʺ
5) In which 1857 decision did the Supreme Court rule that slaves were not citizens, but property?
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Plessy v. Ferguson
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) Dred Scott v. Sandford
E) Gonzales v. Raich
6) The Supreme Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) that
A) separate but equal was inherently unconstitutional.
B) the states had very limited police powers under the Tenth Amendment.
C) racial segregation was constitutional.
D) states could not protect the general welfare of their citizens.
E) all persons born or naturalized in the United States are citizens of the United States.
7) What was the impact of the Sixteenth Amendment on federalism?
A) It increased the power of the state governments by granting them sovereign immunity.
B) It codified the doctrine of dual federalism.
C) It codified the doctrine of concurrent powers.
D) It enhanced statesʹ rights.
E) It enabled the federal government to expand its power by giving it more money to
spend.
8) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) required that U.S. Senators be elected directly by the people.
B) punished the South for the Civil War.
C) enhanced the power of the states.
D) was an unsuccessful attempt to guarantee former slaves the right to vote.
E) successfully guaranteed former slaves the right to vote.
9) The era of dual federalism ended with the
A) Civil War.
B) Great Depression.
C) Sherman Anti-Trust Act.
D) passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) doctrine of implied powers.
10) How did Presidents Calvin Coolidge and Herbert Hoover react to the worsening economic
situations of the 1920s?
A) They launched the New Deal.
B) They created the Works Progress Administration.
C) They abandoned the doctrine of nullification and established the Federal Reserve Board.
D) They did very little, believing it was the responsibility of state governments.
E) They established the Social Security Administration to serve the needs of the elderly and
the impoverished.
A) it established the sovereignty of state governments.
B) it enabled Congress to use the necessary and proper clause to widen its policymaking
scope.
C) the national bank continues to be the foundation of the American dollar.
D) Maryland continues to enjoy immunity from federal laws that regulate banking in every
other state.
E) it established the precedent of stare decisis.
2) What is the significance of the Courtʹs decision in Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Maryland could not create a national bank.
B) Congress must provide ʺdue compensationʺ when it exercises its power of eminent
domain.
C) The president has broad foreign policy powers beyond those explicitly granted in the
Constitution.
D) Congress has broad authority under the commerce clause.
E) The full faith and credit clause does not apply to unmarried couples.
3) The doctrine, applied by the Taney Court, that the national government should not exceed its
enumerated powers is called
A) the full faith and credit doctrine.
B) the doctrine of implied powers.
C) confederation.
D) dual federalism.
E) the emancipation doctrine.
4) In Dred Scott v. Sandford the Supreme Court ruled
A) in favor of Dred Scott.
B) the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional.
C) that slavery could not extend into the territories.
D) for a broad interpretation of the takings clause.
E) that slavery was an immoral ʺstain upon the Union.ʺ
5) In which 1857 decision did the Supreme Court rule that slaves were not citizens, but property?
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Plessy v. Ferguson
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) Dred Scott v. Sandford
E) Gonzales v. Raich
6) The Supreme Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) that
A) separate but equal was inherently unconstitutional.
B) the states had very limited police powers under the Tenth Amendment.
C) racial segregation was constitutional.
D) states could not protect the general welfare of their citizens.
E) all persons born or naturalized in the United States are citizens of the United States.
7) What was the impact of the Sixteenth Amendment on federalism?
A) It increased the power of the state governments by granting them sovereign immunity.
B) It codified the doctrine of dual federalism.
C) It codified the doctrine of concurrent powers.
D) It enhanced statesʹ rights.
E) It enabled the federal government to expand its power by giving it more money to
spend.
8) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) required that U.S. Senators be elected directly by the people.
B) punished the South for the Civil War.
C) enhanced the power of the states.
D) was an unsuccessful attempt to guarantee former slaves the right to vote.
E) successfully guaranteed former slaves the right to vote.
9) The era of dual federalism ended with the
A) Civil War.
B) Great Depression.
C) Sherman Anti-Trust Act.
D) passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) doctrine of implied powers.
10) How did Presidents Calvin Coolidge and Herbert Hoover react to the worsening economic
situations of the 1920s?
A) They launched the New Deal.
B) They created the Works Progress Administration.
C) They abandoned the doctrine of nullification and established the Federal Reserve Board.
D) They did very little, believing it was the responsibility of state governments.
E) They established the Social Security Administration to serve the needs of the elderly and
the impoverished.
Tuesday, September 27, 2011
3.2 Pages 101-105
1) What are the police powers?
A) those powers granted to Congress by the Constitution
B) those powers granted to the president by the Constitution
C) those powers which are ʺnecessary and properʺ for carrying out the enumerated powers
D) those powers reserved to the states by the Tenth Amendment
E) those powers protected by the supremacy clause
2) only the state governments
B) only the national government
C) only Congress
D) only the president
E) both the state governments and the national government
3) Under the Constitution, governments are prohibited from passing
A) economic regulations.
B) writs of habeas corpus.
C) ex post facto laws.
D) revenue measures.
E) block grants.
4) Why was the Tenth Amendment added to the Constitution?
A) concern among Anti-Federalists that the national government would claim powers
otherwise belonging to the states
B) to ensure that a state could not sue the national government without its permission
C) because the Constitution failed to list powers belonging to the national government
D) in order to minimize the economic hardships of the Founders
E) because Chief Justice John Marshall refused to hear cases involving constitutional issues,
noting that the Constitution does not explicitly grant to power of judicial review to the
judiciary
5) A law declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial is called a(n)
A) bill of attainder.
B) writ of mandamus.
C) ex post facto law.
D) habeas corpus act.
E) ex officio law.
6) The clause that ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding
and enforceable in another is called the ________ clause.
A) privileges and immunities
B) full faith and credit
C) extraordinary rendition
D) bill of attainder
E) supremacy
7) How are local governments established?
A) by an act of Congress
B) by submitting an interstate compact to the attorney general
C) by state governments
D) by application to the United States Court of Federal Claims
E) by executive orders issued by the president
8) In the early 1800s, who was the Chief Justice who oversaw important federalism decisions,
including Marbury v. Madison and Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Robert Bork
B) Oliver Ellsworth
C) Brushrod Washington
D) John Marshall
E) Oliver Wendell Holmes
9) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) Congress could use the necessary and proper clause to charter a national bank.
B) Maryland could not create a state bank because it is an enumerated power given
explicitly to Congress.
C) James McCulloch could not establish a bank in Maryland because he did not own
property in the state.
D) the Declaration of Independence does not carry any legal force.
E) the Commerce Clause is unconstitutionally vague and, therefore, prohibits establishing a
bank.
10) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) state laws trump national laws.
B) the supremacy clause prohibits states from taxing the federal government.
C) the scope of Congressʹs authority to create laws is strictly limited to the enumerated
powers.
D) the full faith and credit clause provides sufficient collateral to establish a national bank.
E) Congress has the power of judicial review over laws passed by the states.
A) those powers granted to Congress by the Constitution
B) those powers granted to the president by the Constitution
C) those powers which are ʺnecessary and properʺ for carrying out the enumerated powers
D) those powers reserved to the states by the Tenth Amendment
E) those powers protected by the supremacy clause
2) only the state governments
B) only the national government
C) only Congress
D) only the president
E) both the state governments and the national government
3) Under the Constitution, governments are prohibited from passing
A) economic regulations.
B) writs of habeas corpus.
C) ex post facto laws.
D) revenue measures.
E) block grants.
4) Why was the Tenth Amendment added to the Constitution?
A) concern among Anti-Federalists that the national government would claim powers
otherwise belonging to the states
B) to ensure that a state could not sue the national government without its permission
C) because the Constitution failed to list powers belonging to the national government
D) in order to minimize the economic hardships of the Founders
E) because Chief Justice John Marshall refused to hear cases involving constitutional issues,
noting that the Constitution does not explicitly grant to power of judicial review to the
judiciary
5) A law declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial is called a(n)
A) bill of attainder.
B) writ of mandamus.
C) ex post facto law.
D) habeas corpus act.
E) ex officio law.
6) The clause that ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding
and enforceable in another is called the ________ clause.
A) privileges and immunities
B) full faith and credit
C) extraordinary rendition
D) bill of attainder
E) supremacy
7) How are local governments established?
A) by an act of Congress
B) by submitting an interstate compact to the attorney general
C) by state governments
D) by application to the United States Court of Federal Claims
E) by executive orders issued by the president
8) In the early 1800s, who was the Chief Justice who oversaw important federalism decisions,
including Marbury v. Madison and Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Robert Bork
B) Oliver Ellsworth
C) Brushrod Washington
D) John Marshall
E) Oliver Wendell Holmes
9) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) Congress could use the necessary and proper clause to charter a national bank.
B) Maryland could not create a state bank because it is an enumerated power given
explicitly to Congress.
C) James McCulloch could not establish a bank in Maryland because he did not own
property in the state.
D) the Declaration of Independence does not carry any legal force.
E) the Commerce Clause is unconstitutionally vague and, therefore, prohibits establishing a
bank.
10) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) state laws trump national laws.
B) the supremacy clause prohibits states from taxing the federal government.
C) the scope of Congressʹs authority to create laws is strictly limited to the enumerated
powers.
D) the full faith and credit clause provides sufficient collateral to establish a national bank.
E) Congress has the power of judicial review over laws passed by the states.
Monday, September 26, 2011
3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions Pages 96-101
1) Which of the following best describes the ability of the various levels of government to work
together in the immediate aftermath of Hurricane Katrina?
A) State, local, and federal governments worked together seamlessly.
B) State and local governments worked with each other seamlessly, but did not coordinate
their activities with the federal government.
C) The government of Louisiana and the federal government worked together seamlessly,
but the Mayor of New Orleans preferred to work independently.
D) State, local, and federal governments were not able to coordinate effectively.
E) While state, local, and federal governments worked together well in the immediate
aftermath of the hurricane, their ability to coordinate dissipated as the crisis unfolded.
2) The most common type of government in the United States is the
A) county government.
B) township government.
C) municipal government.
D) school district.
E) special district.
3) What system of government is used in the United States?
A) a federal system
B) a confederation
C) a fiscal system
D) a unitary system
E) a renal system
4) Which type of government derives all of its power from the states?
A) socialism
B) a federal system
C) a confederation
D) a unitary system
E) a theocracy
5) Article I, section 8 gives Congress the power to pass all laws ʺnecessary and properʺ to
carrying out its enumerated powers. This clause is also known as the
A) enumerated powers clause.
B) reserve powers clause.
C) implied powers clause.
D) full faith and credit clause.
E) expressed powers clause.
6) In a federal system, the states derive their power from ________ and the national government
derives its power from ________.
A) the national government; the state governments
B) the state legislature; Congress
C) the states; the people
D) the people; the states
E) the people; the people
7) Which of the following is a concurrent power?
A) taxation
B) coining money
C) establishing federal courts
D) regulating commerce within a state
E) conducting war
8) Where state law conflicts with national law, national law prevails due to
A) federalism.
B) the supremacy clause.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) full faith and credit.
E) sovereign immunity.
9) Which of the following best describes the powers explicitly granted to state governments by
the Constitution?
A) State governments were given the enumerated powers.
B) State governments were given the expressed powers.
C) State governments were given the implied powers.
D) The powers granted to the state governments are spelled out in Article V of the
Constitution.
E) State government powers are not explicitly spelled out in the Constitution.
10) Identify the following phrase: ʺThe powers not delegated to the United States by the
Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the
people.ʺ
A) the establishment clause
B) the full faith and credit clause
C) the enumerated powers
D) Article I, section 8
E) the Tenth Amendment
together in the immediate aftermath of Hurricane Katrina?
A) State, local, and federal governments worked together seamlessly.
B) State and local governments worked with each other seamlessly, but did not coordinate
their activities with the federal government.
C) The government of Louisiana and the federal government worked together seamlessly,
but the Mayor of New Orleans preferred to work independently.
D) State, local, and federal governments were not able to coordinate effectively.
E) While state, local, and federal governments worked together well in the immediate
aftermath of the hurricane, their ability to coordinate dissipated as the crisis unfolded.
2) The most common type of government in the United States is the
A) county government.
B) township government.
C) municipal government.
D) school district.
E) special district.
3) What system of government is used in the United States?
A) a federal system
B) a confederation
C) a fiscal system
D) a unitary system
E) a renal system
4) Which type of government derives all of its power from the states?
A) socialism
B) a federal system
C) a confederation
D) a unitary system
E) a theocracy
5) Article I, section 8 gives Congress the power to pass all laws ʺnecessary and properʺ to
carrying out its enumerated powers. This clause is also known as the
A) enumerated powers clause.
B) reserve powers clause.
C) implied powers clause.
D) full faith and credit clause.
E) expressed powers clause.
6) In a federal system, the states derive their power from ________ and the national government
derives its power from ________.
A) the national government; the state governments
B) the state legislature; Congress
C) the states; the people
D) the people; the states
E) the people; the people
7) Which of the following is a concurrent power?
A) taxation
B) coining money
C) establishing federal courts
D) regulating commerce within a state
E) conducting war
8) Where state law conflicts with national law, national law prevails due to
A) federalism.
B) the supremacy clause.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) full faith and credit.
E) sovereign immunity.
9) Which of the following best describes the powers explicitly granted to state governments by
the Constitution?
A) State governments were given the enumerated powers.
B) State governments were given the expressed powers.
C) State governments were given the implied powers.
D) The powers granted to the state governments are spelled out in Article V of the
Constitution.
E) State government powers are not explicitly spelled out in the Constitution.
10) Identify the following phrase: ʺThe powers not delegated to the United States by the
Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the
people.ʺ
A) the establishment clause
B) the full faith and credit clause
C) the enumerated powers
D) Article I, section 8
E) the Tenth Amendment
Friday, September 23, 2011
2.2 True/False Questions
1) The Twenty-Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to vote to all citizens who are at least
seventeen years old.
2) The Framers intended the amendment process to be difficult.
3) Following the French and Indian War, the British government and the colonists agreed that
westward expansion should be curtailed.
4) The Sons of Liberty were organized to fight the French and Indian War.
5) The Boston Tea Party was held to celebrate the signing of the Declaration of Independence.
6) Thomas Paine wrote Common Sense to argue for American independence.
7) Shaysʹs Rebellion was the first battle of the Revolutionary War.
8) The Declaration of Independence draws from the teachings of John Locke.
9) Under the Articles of Confederation, it was difficult for the federal government to collect tax
revenue and, therefore, to pay for anything the government wanted or needed to do.
10) The 1787 Constitutional Convention was called for the ʺsole and express purpose of revising
the Articles of Confederation.ʺ
11) Larger states tended to prefer the New Jersey Plan.
12) The Great Compromise resulted in a bicameral legislature, with all spending and taxing bills
originating in the House of Representatives.
13) To appease southern states, slaves were counted as three-fifths of a person for the purpose of
determining how many seats each state would have in the House of Representatives.
14) The Committee on Unfinished Portions was charged with ironing out the details of the
executive branch.
15) In order to prevent any one component of government from becoming too powerful, the
Framers separated powers among the three branches of government.
16) The enumerated powers are explicitly listed in the necessary and proper clause.
17) The Constitution prohibits Arnold Schwarzenegger from becoming president.
18) The executive branch is described in Article II of the Constitution.
19) The supremacy clause prevents government from establishing an official religion.
20) The Iraqi Constitution guarantees citizens housing and health care.
21) The Federalists tended to draw support from small farmers, shopkeepers, and laborers.
22) Ratification of the Constitution required approval of nine out of the 13 states.
23) The Equal Rights Amendment passed Congress and was ratified by the requisite number of
states in 1982, becoming the most recent constitutional amendment.
24) Both the House and the Senate have passed an anti-flag burning amendment with a
two-thirds majority. When a simple majority of state legislatures ratify the amendment, it will
officially become part of the Constitution.
25) Supreme Court decisions can change the meaning of the Constitution.
26) The Constitution has only changed through formal amendments.
seventeen years old.
2) The Framers intended the amendment process to be difficult.
3) Following the French and Indian War, the British government and the colonists agreed that
westward expansion should be curtailed.
4) The Sons of Liberty were organized to fight the French and Indian War.
5) The Boston Tea Party was held to celebrate the signing of the Declaration of Independence.
6) Thomas Paine wrote Common Sense to argue for American independence.
7) Shaysʹs Rebellion was the first battle of the Revolutionary War.
8) The Declaration of Independence draws from the teachings of John Locke.
9) Under the Articles of Confederation, it was difficult for the federal government to collect tax
revenue and, therefore, to pay for anything the government wanted or needed to do.
10) The 1787 Constitutional Convention was called for the ʺsole and express purpose of revising
the Articles of Confederation.ʺ
11) Larger states tended to prefer the New Jersey Plan.
12) The Great Compromise resulted in a bicameral legislature, with all spending and taxing bills
originating in the House of Representatives.
13) To appease southern states, slaves were counted as three-fifths of a person for the purpose of
determining how many seats each state would have in the House of Representatives.
14) The Committee on Unfinished Portions was charged with ironing out the details of the
executive branch.
15) In order to prevent any one component of government from becoming too powerful, the
Framers separated powers among the three branches of government.
16) The enumerated powers are explicitly listed in the necessary and proper clause.
17) The Constitution prohibits Arnold Schwarzenegger from becoming president.
18) The executive branch is described in Article II of the Constitution.
19) The supremacy clause prevents government from establishing an official religion.
20) The Iraqi Constitution guarantees citizens housing and health care.
21) The Federalists tended to draw support from small farmers, shopkeepers, and laborers.
22) Ratification of the Constitution required approval of nine out of the 13 states.
23) The Equal Rights Amendment passed Congress and was ratified by the requisite number of
states in 1982, becoming the most recent constitutional amendment.
24) Both the House and the Senate have passed an anti-flag burning amendment with a
two-thirds majority. When a simple majority of state legislatures ratify the amendment, it will
officially become part of the Constitution.
25) Supreme Court decisions can change the meaning of the Constitution.
26) The Constitution has only changed through formal amendments.
Wednesday, September 21, 2011
FRQ on the Constitution Question #1(2001)
The United States Constitution has endured for more than two centuries as the
framework of government. However, the meaning of the Constitution has been
changed both by formal and informal methods.
a. Identify two formal methods for adding amendments to the Constitution.
b. Describe two informal methods that have been used to change the
meaning of the Constitution. Provide one specific example for each
informal method you described.
c. Explain why informal methods are used more often than the formal amendment process
A1. One formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is through the process by which amendment proposals if passed 2/3ds of both Houses of Congress, are then sent to the state legislatures. If 3/4s of these legislatures ratify the amendment proposal, then the amendment is added to the Constitution.
A2. Another formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is completed through the states. In this scenario a statewide Constitutional Convention is called by Congress and held and if 2/3rds of state representatives approve the proposal, it is then sent off the state legislatures and will become ratified if ¾’s of these legislatures approve it. This method has never been used before.
B1. One informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the Elastic Clause and Congress-it essentially gives the legislative branch substantial power to make laws necessary and proper to carry out the functions of the federal government that may not be formally expressed in the Constitution. While a national bank was not mentioned in the Constitution, the Supreme Court decision, McCulloch v. Maryland allowed for a national banks’ authority over state banks-the State of Maryland could not tax a federal bank.
B2. Another informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the judicial process. Many constitutional questions have been the subject of court cases. Oftentimes, the 14th Amendment is involved in adjusting the Constitution. For example, in the case of Gideon v. Wainwright, the US Supreme Court held that an individual had the right to an attorney on the state level whereas originally the Constitution only allowed for federal representation.
C1. Informal methods for changing the Constitution are used far more often than the formal amendment process because they are much easier to affect. The 2/3rds proposal and ¾’s ratification process has produced only 27 amendments over the past 200 years. By contrast, legislative and judicial methods for “tweaking” the Constitution require far less time and far less need for consensus.
framework of government. However, the meaning of the Constitution has been
changed both by formal and informal methods.
a. Identify two formal methods for adding amendments to the Constitution.
b. Describe two informal methods that have been used to change the
meaning of the Constitution. Provide one specific example for each
informal method you described.
c. Explain why informal methods are used more often than the formal amendment process
A1. One formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is through the process by which amendment proposals if passed 2/3ds of both Houses of Congress, are then sent to the state legislatures. If 3/4s of these legislatures ratify the amendment proposal, then the amendment is added to the Constitution.
A2. Another formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is completed through the states. In this scenario a statewide Constitutional Convention is called by Congress and held and if 2/3rds of state representatives approve the proposal, it is then sent off the state legislatures and will become ratified if ¾’s of these legislatures approve it. This method has never been used before.
B1. One informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the Elastic Clause and Congress-it essentially gives the legislative branch substantial power to make laws necessary and proper to carry out the functions of the federal government that may not be formally expressed in the Constitution. While a national bank was not mentioned in the Constitution, the Supreme Court decision, McCulloch v. Maryland allowed for a national banks’ authority over state banks-the State of Maryland could not tax a federal bank.
B2. Another informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the judicial process. Many constitutional questions have been the subject of court cases. Oftentimes, the 14th Amendment is involved in adjusting the Constitution. For example, in the case of Gideon v. Wainwright, the US Supreme Court held that an individual had the right to an attorney on the state level whereas originally the Constitution only allowed for federal representation.
C1. Informal methods for changing the Constitution are used far more often than the formal amendment process because they are much easier to affect. The 2/3rds proposal and ¾’s ratification process has produced only 27 amendments over the past 200 years. By contrast, legislative and judicial methods for “tweaking” the Constitution require far less time and far less need for consensus.
2.2 Pages 38-43
1) The Declaration of Independence was drafted by
A) James Madison.
B) Thomas Jefferson.
C) George Washington.
D) John Stewart.
E) John Locke.
2) The Declaration of Independence contains
A) Hobbesʹs Second Treatise on Government.
B) the Bill of Rights.
C) arguments in support of the Constitution.
D) a list of complaints against the British government.
E) no references to Great Britain.
3) A type of government in which the national government is weaker than the sum of its parts is
called
A) a confederacy.
B) federalism.
C) a unitary system.
D) pluralism.
E) totalitarianism.
4) The government established after the Declaration of Independence was the
A) Constitution.
B) Federation Treaty.
C) Articles of Confederation.
D) Magna Carta.
E) Declaration of the Rights of Man.
5) Which of the following is a weakness of the Articles of Confederation?
A) The federal government had the power to regulate interstate commerce.
B) The federal government had the power to regulate commerce with foreign nations.
C) Congress collected excessive taxes from the states.
D) Congress could rarely muster a quorum.
E) Federal government spending was lavish.
6) Under the Articles of Confederation, the executive branch was
A) the workhorse of the federal government.
B) virtually nonexistent.
C) quite strong.
D) dominated by Torries.
E) responsible for enacting all laws.
7) The significance of Shaysʹs rebellion is that it
A) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent farmsteads.
B) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent merchants.
C) prevented Massachusetts from joining the Articles of Confederation.
D) established the principle of ʺno taxation without representation.ʺ
E) convinced the colonists that the Articles of Confederation were too weak.
8) What was the ʺsole and express purposeʺ for which the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was
called?
A) to declare independence from Great Britain
B) to revise the Articles of Confederation
C) to draft the Constitution
D) to draft the Bill of Rights
E) to find a way to quell Shaysʹs Rebellion
9) The Virginia Plan called for a national system with
A) a weak central government.
B) a single legislature with representation according to population.
C) a strong central government and a bicameral legislature.
D) equality among the states.
E) no state governments whatsoever.
10) The smaller states presented a plan at the Constitutional Convention advocating the
strengthening of the Articles of Confederation. The plan was presented by
A) Maine.
B) Rhode Island.
C) New Jersey.
D) Connecticut.
E) Virginia.
A) James Madison.
B) Thomas Jefferson.
C) George Washington.
D) John Stewart.
E) John Locke.
2) The Declaration of Independence contains
A) Hobbesʹs Second Treatise on Government.
B) the Bill of Rights.
C) arguments in support of the Constitution.
D) a list of complaints against the British government.
E) no references to Great Britain.
3) A type of government in which the national government is weaker than the sum of its parts is
called
A) a confederacy.
B) federalism.
C) a unitary system.
D) pluralism.
E) totalitarianism.
4) The government established after the Declaration of Independence was the
A) Constitution.
B) Federation Treaty.
C) Articles of Confederation.
D) Magna Carta.
E) Declaration of the Rights of Man.
5) Which of the following is a weakness of the Articles of Confederation?
A) The federal government had the power to regulate interstate commerce.
B) The federal government had the power to regulate commerce with foreign nations.
C) Congress collected excessive taxes from the states.
D) Congress could rarely muster a quorum.
E) Federal government spending was lavish.
6) Under the Articles of Confederation, the executive branch was
A) the workhorse of the federal government.
B) virtually nonexistent.
C) quite strong.
D) dominated by Torries.
E) responsible for enacting all laws.
7) The significance of Shaysʹs rebellion is that it
A) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent farmsteads.
B) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent merchants.
C) prevented Massachusetts from joining the Articles of Confederation.
D) established the principle of ʺno taxation without representation.ʺ
E) convinced the colonists that the Articles of Confederation were too weak.
8) What was the ʺsole and express purposeʺ for which the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was
called?
A) to declare independence from Great Britain
B) to revise the Articles of Confederation
C) to draft the Constitution
D) to draft the Bill of Rights
E) to find a way to quell Shaysʹs Rebellion
9) The Virginia Plan called for a national system with
A) a weak central government.
B) a single legislature with representation according to population.
C) a strong central government and a bicameral legislature.
D) equality among the states.
E) no state governments whatsoever.
10) The smaller states presented a plan at the Constitutional Convention advocating the
strengthening of the Articles of Confederation. The plan was presented by
A) Maine.
B) Rhode Island.
C) New Jersey.
D) Connecticut.
E) Virginia.
Tuesday, September 20, 2011
2.1 Sabato Pages 32-36
1) The right of eighteen-year-olds to vote in all elections was firmly established by
A) Article I of the Constitution.
B) Article II of the Constitution.
C) the Bill of Rights.
D) the Twenty-Sixth Amendment.
E) an act of Congress.
2) Which of the following accurately describes constitutional amendments?
A) Amending the Constitution is easy.
B) Amending the Constitution is difficult.
C) Amending the Constitution is frequently successful.
D) Very few constitutional amendments have been proposed.
E) Very few constitutional amendments have been sent to the states for ratification.
3) Why did the British Parliament enact the Sugar Act of 1764, which taxed goods imported by the colonists such as sugar, wine, and coffee?
A) to punish the colonists for ʺtreacherous rebellions and insurrectionsʺ
B) to fund the Louisiana Purchase
C) to help pay for the French and Indian War
D) to discourage the use of ʺitems whose sinful nature compromises the sanctity of Her
Majestyʹs subjectsʺ
E) to provoke the colonists into rebellion
4) In 1765, American colonists were especially upset over
A) the Treaty of Paris.
B) the Stamp Act.
C) the Articles of Confederation.
D) the Magna Carta.
E) the Boston Tea Party.
5) A major complaint of the Sons of Liberty was
A) taxation without representation.
B) excessive immigration.
C) the selection of delegates to the Virginia House of Burgesses.
D) infrequent mail delivery from Britain.
E) the ineffectiveness of the Mayflower Compact.
6) How did Britain respond to the Boston Tea Party?
A) The king hosted his own British Tea Party in the English Channel.
B) The king ignored the incident and hoped the insurrection in the colonies would go away.
C) Parliament hired Indians to burn the property of Bostonʹs merchants.
D) Parliament enacted a law that blockaded Boston Harbor.
E) British soldiers were told disband the Sons of Liberty ʺby any means necessary, be they
legal or otherwise.ʺ
7) The First Continental Congress was most concerned about
A) the ongoing French and Indian War.
B) the extent of British authority over the colonies.
C) ensuring access to imported tea and sugar.
D) establishing a written Constitution for the newly united colonies.
E) punishing the Sons of Liberty for various illegal acts.
8) The First Continental Congress had delegates from
A) nine of the 13 colonies.
B) every colony except Georgia.
C) all 13 colonies.
D) all 13 colonies and the British Parliament.
E) all 13 colonies, the Indians, and the British Parliament.
9) Fighting in the American Revolution broke out in the battle at
A) Saratoga, New York.
B) Trenton, New Jersey.
C) Lexington and Concord, Massachusetts.
D) New York, New York.
E) Yorktown, Virginia.
10) In Common Sense, Thomas Paine argues
A) for independence from Great Britain.
B) in favor or mercantilism.
C) that Great Britain should use the might of the British military to keep the colonies in line.
D) in favor or quartering British soldiers.
E) for a colonial government with its capital in Washington.
A) Article I of the Constitution.
B) Article II of the Constitution.
C) the Bill of Rights.
D) the Twenty-Sixth Amendment.
E) an act of Congress.
2) Which of the following accurately describes constitutional amendments?
A) Amending the Constitution is easy.
B) Amending the Constitution is difficult.
C) Amending the Constitution is frequently successful.
D) Very few constitutional amendments have been proposed.
E) Very few constitutional amendments have been sent to the states for ratification.
3) Why did the British Parliament enact the Sugar Act of 1764, which taxed goods imported by the colonists such as sugar, wine, and coffee?
A) to punish the colonists for ʺtreacherous rebellions and insurrectionsʺ
B) to fund the Louisiana Purchase
C) to help pay for the French and Indian War
D) to discourage the use of ʺitems whose sinful nature compromises the sanctity of Her
Majestyʹs subjectsʺ
E) to provoke the colonists into rebellion
4) In 1765, American colonists were especially upset over
A) the Treaty of Paris.
B) the Stamp Act.
C) the Articles of Confederation.
D) the Magna Carta.
E) the Boston Tea Party.
5) A major complaint of the Sons of Liberty was
A) taxation without representation.
B) excessive immigration.
C) the selection of delegates to the Virginia House of Burgesses.
D) infrequent mail delivery from Britain.
E) the ineffectiveness of the Mayflower Compact.
6) How did Britain respond to the Boston Tea Party?
A) The king hosted his own British Tea Party in the English Channel.
B) The king ignored the incident and hoped the insurrection in the colonies would go away.
C) Parliament hired Indians to burn the property of Bostonʹs merchants.
D) Parliament enacted a law that blockaded Boston Harbor.
E) British soldiers were told disband the Sons of Liberty ʺby any means necessary, be they
legal or otherwise.ʺ
7) The First Continental Congress was most concerned about
A) the ongoing French and Indian War.
B) the extent of British authority over the colonies.
C) ensuring access to imported tea and sugar.
D) establishing a written Constitution for the newly united colonies.
E) punishing the Sons of Liberty for various illegal acts.
8) The First Continental Congress had delegates from
A) nine of the 13 colonies.
B) every colony except Georgia.
C) all 13 colonies.
D) all 13 colonies and the British Parliament.
E) all 13 colonies, the Indians, and the British Parliament.
9) Fighting in the American Revolution broke out in the battle at
A) Saratoga, New York.
B) Trenton, New Jersey.
C) Lexington and Concord, Massachusetts.
D) New York, New York.
E) Yorktown, Virginia.
10) In Common Sense, Thomas Paine argues
A) for independence from Great Britain.
B) in favor or mercantilism.
C) that Great Britain should use the might of the British military to keep the colonies in line.
D) in favor or quartering British soldiers.
E) for a colonial government with its capital in Washington.
Monday, September 19, 2011
Revised Sabato Pages 23 to 28.....MY BAD and thanks to Carlos Muros!!!
1) Social conservatives are most concerned about
A) human rights.
B) economic equality.
C) poverty.
D) moral decay.
E) making money.
2) Who most strongly believes that government should promote equality and provide social services?
A) liberals
B) moderates
C) populists
D) libertarians
E) conservatives
3) Who is most likely to favor government regulation of sexual and social behavior?
A) libertarians
B) Democrats
C) moderates
D) conservatives
E) social conservatives
4) Which of the following best describes American attitudes toward government?
A) adulation
B) trust
C) awe
D) cynicism
E) civic virtue
5) In recent decades, what has happened to the faith citizens place in American institutions, such
as Congress, the press, and industry?
A) It has increased.
B) It has increased and decreased in cyclical fashion.
C) It has remained fairly constant.
D) It has fluctuated randomly.
E) It has decreased.
6) What do the authors mean when they say that Americans have a .missing appreciation of the
good.?
A) Americans are less likely to respect politicians and other authority figures.
B) Voters tend to look at the glass as half full instead of as half empty.
C) The size of the American population has been increasing exponentially.
D) Good things often come in small packages.
E) Americans tend to overlook the significant improvements government has made in
Americans. lives.
7) Who is Tom DeLay?
A) the author of the Constitution
B) the leader of the religious right
C) the former House majority leader who resigned in the wake of political scandals
D) the president of Head Start
E) the architect behind Franklin Roosevelt.s New Deal
8) What was the most common reason citizens gave for NOT voting in 2004?
A) They did not like either candidate.
B) Polling places were open at inconvenient hours.
C) The weather was bad.
D) They did not know enough about the candidates.
E) They were too busy.
9) In the wake of the 9/11 terrorists attacks, Americans are more willing to accept
A) a lower standard of living.
B) terrorism.
C) social upheaval.
D) reduced civil liberties.
E) totalitarianism.
A) human rights.
B) economic equality.
C) poverty.
D) moral decay.
E) making money.
2) Who most strongly believes that government should promote equality and provide social services?
A) liberals
B) moderates
C) populists
D) libertarians
E) conservatives
3) Who is most likely to favor government regulation of sexual and social behavior?
A) libertarians
B) Democrats
C) moderates
D) conservatives
E) social conservatives
4) Which of the following best describes American attitudes toward government?
A) adulation
B) trust
C) awe
D) cynicism
E) civic virtue
5) In recent decades, what has happened to the faith citizens place in American institutions, such
as Congress, the press, and industry?
A) It has increased.
B) It has increased and decreased in cyclical fashion.
C) It has remained fairly constant.
D) It has fluctuated randomly.
E) It has decreased.
6) What do the authors mean when they say that Americans have a .missing appreciation of the
good.?
A) Americans are less likely to respect politicians and other authority figures.
B) Voters tend to look at the glass as half full instead of as half empty.
C) The size of the American population has been increasing exponentially.
D) Good things often come in small packages.
E) Americans tend to overlook the significant improvements government has made in
Americans. lives.
7) Who is Tom DeLay?
A) the author of the Constitution
B) the leader of the religious right
C) the former House majority leader who resigned in the wake of political scandals
D) the president of Head Start
E) the architect behind Franklin Roosevelt.s New Deal
8) What was the most common reason citizens gave for NOT voting in 2004?
A) They did not like either candidate.
B) Polling places were open at inconvenient hours.
C) The weather was bad.
D) They did not know enough about the candidates.
E) They were too busy.
9) In the wake of the 9/11 terrorists attacks, Americans are more willing to accept
A) a lower standard of living.
B) terrorism.
C) social upheaval.
D) reduced civil liberties.
E) totalitarianism.
Sabato Chapter 14.3 Pages 521-530
1) In the weeks before the 2004 presidential debates,
A) the Bush campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Kerryʹs skills.
B) the Kerry campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Bushʹs skills.
C) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their own debating skills.
D) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their opponentʹs debating skills.
E) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played down their opponentʹs debating skills.
2) What was the Supreme Courtʹs decision in McConnell v. Federal Election Commission?
A) The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act was unconstitutional.
B) Preventing political corruption overrides the partiesʹ free speech rights.
C) Congress can not restrict political contributions.
D) Public financing of political campaigns is unconstitutional.
E) McConnell lacked standing to sue and the case was sent back to the district court.
3) Which of the following is a provision of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act?
A) All campaigns must accept matching funds.
B) Congressional campaigns will be publicly funded.
C) A prohibition on soft money.
D) Supporters can no longer give money to a candidateʹs campaign committees; all money
must be given directly to candidates.
E) Citizens can give no more than $500 to a single candidate and no more than $2000 to any
candidate in a given election cycle.
4) Which of the following is least important for holding free and fair elections?
A) freedom of speech
B) a lengthy campaign season
C) freedom of assembly
D) a lack of government coercion over the process
E) secret ballots
5) Who can establish political action committees?
A) interest groups
B) candidates
C) foreign citizens
D) political parties
E) government entities
6) How does the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act affect political action committees?
A) PACs are prohibited from giving money to incumbents.
B) PACs are prohibited from giving money to challengers.
C) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for electioneering communications only.
D) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for administrative costs only.
E) PACS are prohibited from giving candidates money within 90 days of an upcoming
election.
7) Who establishes leadership PACs?
A) labor unions
B) corporations
C) members of Congress
D) trade associations
E) CEOs
8) Who can contribute unlimited amounts of money to a candidateʹs campaign?
A) individual citizens
B) 527 groups
C) corporate PACs
D) leadership PACs
E) Candidates can contribute unlimited amounts of money to their own campaigns.
9) How does public financing work in the general election?
A) Congressional candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to
spend any additional money.
B) Presidential candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to spend
any additional money.
C) Congressional candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
D) Presidential candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
E) Presidential and congressional candidates share whatever money is available in the
Election Campaign Fund.
10) Which of the following groups thinks that regulations on campaign contributions are a good
thing?
A) National Rifle Association
B) American Civil Liberties Union
C) Common Cause
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
A) the Bush campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Kerryʹs skills.
B) the Kerry campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Bushʹs skills.
C) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their own debating skills.
D) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their opponentʹs debating skills.
E) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played down their opponentʹs debating skills.
2) What was the Supreme Courtʹs decision in McConnell v. Federal Election Commission?
A) The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act was unconstitutional.
B) Preventing political corruption overrides the partiesʹ free speech rights.
C) Congress can not restrict political contributions.
D) Public financing of political campaigns is unconstitutional.
E) McConnell lacked standing to sue and the case was sent back to the district court.
3) Which of the following is a provision of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act?
A) All campaigns must accept matching funds.
B) Congressional campaigns will be publicly funded.
C) A prohibition on soft money.
D) Supporters can no longer give money to a candidateʹs campaign committees; all money
must be given directly to candidates.
E) Citizens can give no more than $500 to a single candidate and no more than $2000 to any
candidate in a given election cycle.
4) Which of the following is least important for holding free and fair elections?
A) freedom of speech
B) a lengthy campaign season
C) freedom of assembly
D) a lack of government coercion over the process
E) secret ballots
5) Who can establish political action committees?
A) interest groups
B) candidates
C) foreign citizens
D) political parties
E) government entities
6) How does the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act affect political action committees?
A) PACs are prohibited from giving money to incumbents.
B) PACs are prohibited from giving money to challengers.
C) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for electioneering communications only.
D) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for administrative costs only.
E) PACS are prohibited from giving candidates money within 90 days of an upcoming
election.
7) Who establishes leadership PACs?
A) labor unions
B) corporations
C) members of Congress
D) trade associations
E) CEOs
8) Who can contribute unlimited amounts of money to a candidateʹs campaign?
A) individual citizens
B) 527 groups
C) corporate PACs
D) leadership PACs
E) Candidates can contribute unlimited amounts of money to their own campaigns.
9) How does public financing work in the general election?
A) Congressional candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to
spend any additional money.
B) Presidential candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to spend
any additional money.
C) Congressional candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
D) Presidential candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
E) Presidential and congressional candidates share whatever money is available in the
Election Campaign Fund.
10) Which of the following groups thinks that regulations on campaign contributions are a good
thing?
A) National Rifle Association
B) American Civil Liberties Union
C) Common Cause
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Thursday, September 15, 2011
AOC FRQ-My Response
AOC FRQ
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned taxation. No national system existed for tax collection which could have been used for a number of services including paying a national military to protect the new nation from French and English pirating. One solution that the Constitution provided to address taxation was laid out in Article I which provided congress with the power to collect state revenue in the form of taxes.
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned the absense of a national judiciary. A number of legal disputes emerged between states which lacked a national form of arbitration. One solution that the Constitution provided to the lack of judicial authority included the creation of the judicial branch under Article III of the Constitution which would among other things, provide legal authority to the national government to resolved disputes among the states.
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was the absense of a national currency. Under the Articles of Confederation, no guidance was given states related to currency. Consequently, each state printed their own money which created significant problems including hyperinflation within states as well as trade disputes between states.
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was the authority given to Congress to coin money as well as the new prohibition on states from continuing to print their own currency. As the result, a new national currency was created which solved a number of economic problems througout the colonies.
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension. The federal government has for over 30 years implemented clean air standards using the Environmental Protection Agency as its enforcement agency. Many states have been told to clean up their air to acceptable national standards or potentially face sanctions from the federal government. In some cases, the threat of a cutoff of federal highway funds has been used as a means to get states to comply with federal clean air standards. While there has been substantial improvement in air standards over the past 30 years, tensions have continued to boil over between states and the federal government over air quality issues. With a current nationalwide economic recession, many states citing financial concerns have recently balked at certain government mandates related to clean air demonstrating that tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned taxation. No national system existed for tax collection which could have been used for a number of services including paying a national military to protect the new nation from French and English pirating. One solution that the Constitution provided to address taxation was laid out in Article I which provided congress with the power to collect state revenue in the form of taxes.
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned the absense of a national judiciary. A number of legal disputes emerged between states which lacked a national form of arbitration. One solution that the Constitution provided to the lack of judicial authority included the creation of the judicial branch under Article III of the Constitution which would among other things, provide legal authority to the national government to resolved disputes among the states.
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was the absense of a national currency. Under the Articles of Confederation, no guidance was given states related to currency. Consequently, each state printed their own money which created significant problems including hyperinflation within states as well as trade disputes between states.
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was the authority given to Congress to coin money as well as the new prohibition on states from continuing to print their own currency. As the result, a new national currency was created which solved a number of economic problems througout the colonies.
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension. The federal government has for over 30 years implemented clean air standards using the Environmental Protection Agency as its enforcement agency. Many states have been told to clean up their air to acceptable national standards or potentially face sanctions from the federal government. In some cases, the threat of a cutoff of federal highway funds has been used as a means to get states to comply with federal clean air standards. While there has been substantial improvement in air standards over the past 30 years, tensions have continued to boil over between states and the federal government over air quality issues. With a current nationalwide economic recession, many states citing financial concerns have recently balked at certain government mandates related to clean air demonstrating that tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
No Sabato Tonight...Just the FRQ
Class: Here is the setup for tonight’s FRQ. Please attempt to complete the FRQ on your own and then stay tuned later on this evening for my response….
1. The Constitution was an attempt to address problems of decentralization that were experienced under the Articles of Confederation.
(a) List three problems of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of Confederation. For each problem you listed, identify one solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem.
(b)Some have argued that the tensions between decentralized and centralized power continue to exist. Support this argument by explaining how one of the following illustrates the continuing tension:
•Environmental policy
•Gun control
•Disability access
AOC FRQ
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension because…..
1. The Constitution was an attempt to address problems of decentralization that were experienced under the Articles of Confederation.
(a) List three problems of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of Confederation. For each problem you listed, identify one solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem.
(b)Some have argued that the tensions between decentralized and centralized power continue to exist. Support this argument by explaining how one of the following illustrates the continuing tension:
•Environmental policy
•Gun control
•Disability access
AOC FRQ
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension because…..
Wednesday, September 14, 2011
Sabato 1.2 Pages 11-13
1) Direct democracy is distinguished by
A) representative government and the rule of law.
B) citizen decision making and majority rule.
C) power and influence.
D) political appointments and social engineering.
E) a social contract and republican government.
2) In an indirect democracy, public policies are determined by
A) consensus.
B) oligarchs.
C) religious figures.
D) representatives.
E) economic elites.
3) Which of the following is a contemporary example of direct democracy?
A) trial by jury
B) New England town meetings
C) congressional elections
D) political protests
E) the Electoral College
4) Personal liberty is most closely related to
A) freedom. B) equality. C) civility. D) fascism. E) suffrage.
5) American political culture emphasizes
A) collaboration.
B) agnosticism.
C) atheism.
D) political equality.
E) socialism.
6) The belief that authority in society ultimately rests with the people is known as
A) establishmentarianism.
B) natural rights.
C) common law.
D) popular sovereignty.
E) Hobbesian law.
7) The belief that society should be governed by certain ethical principles that are part of nature
and can be understood by reason is called
A) ethical law.
B) contract law.
C) natural law.
D) Newtonʹs law.
E) civil law.
8) A civil society
A) is ʺnasty, brutish, and short.ʺ
B) is ruled by a leviathan.
C) encourages citizens to engage in policy debates.
D) is harmful to democracy.
E) hinders a frank exchange of ideas.
9) George W. Bush has argued that the United States
A) should guarantee social, political, and economic equality.
B) should spread democracy abroad.
C) would be better off under the rule of a benevolent dictator.
D) should reduce dependence on fossil fuels by reducing economic growth.
E) should return to its isolationist roots.
10) Americans are most likely to believe that
A) politicians can be trusted.
B) presidents should have strong religious beliefs.
C) illegal immigration benefits the American economy.
D) government should avoid moderate policies.
E) Social Security should be eliminated.
A) representative government and the rule of law.
B) citizen decision making and majority rule.
C) power and influence.
D) political appointments and social engineering.
E) a social contract and republican government.
2) In an indirect democracy, public policies are determined by
A) consensus.
B) oligarchs.
C) religious figures.
D) representatives.
E) economic elites.
3) Which of the following is a contemporary example of direct democracy?
A) trial by jury
B) New England town meetings
C) congressional elections
D) political protests
E) the Electoral College
4) Personal liberty is most closely related to
A) freedom. B) equality. C) civility. D) fascism. E) suffrage.
5) American political culture emphasizes
A) collaboration.
B) agnosticism.
C) atheism.
D) political equality.
E) socialism.
6) The belief that authority in society ultimately rests with the people is known as
A) establishmentarianism.
B) natural rights.
C) common law.
D) popular sovereignty.
E) Hobbesian law.
7) The belief that society should be governed by certain ethical principles that are part of nature
and can be understood by reason is called
A) ethical law.
B) contract law.
C) natural law.
D) Newtonʹs law.
E) civil law.
8) A civil society
A) is ʺnasty, brutish, and short.ʺ
B) is ruled by a leviathan.
C) encourages citizens to engage in policy debates.
D) is harmful to democracy.
E) hinders a frank exchange of ideas.
9) George W. Bush has argued that the United States
A) should guarantee social, political, and economic equality.
B) should spread democracy abroad.
C) would be better off under the rule of a benevolent dictator.
D) should reduce dependence on fossil fuels by reducing economic growth.
E) should return to its isolationist roots.
10) Americans are most likely to believe that
A) politicians can be trusted.
B) presidents should have strong religious beliefs.
C) illegal immigration benefits the American economy.
D) government should avoid moderate policies.
E) Social Security should be eliminated.
Monday, September 12, 2011
1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions Pages 1-11
Class, this reading will be due for Tuesday's class....
1) The process by which policy decisions are made is known as
A) politics.
B) government.
C) the preamble.
D) multiculturalism.
E) Robertʹs rules.
2) How does the Constitution help ʺestablish justiceʺ?
A) The supremacy clause protects citizens from excessive government interference in
personal matters.
B) The Constitution guarantees judicial privacy.
C) The Constitution prohibits Congress from creating any court except for the Supreme
Court.
D) The Framers explicitly excluded voting rights for women, slaves, and landowners.
E) The Bill of Rights entitles accused citizens to a trial by jury.
3) Which of the following is NOT a function of government, as laid out in the Preamble to the
Constitution?
A) to secure the blessings of liberty
B) to provide for the common defense
C) to ensure domestic tranquility
D) to promote the general welfare
E) to ensure economic equality
4) Which of the following best describes Saddam Hussein?
A) He was an oligarch.
B) He was a patriarch.
C) He was a tyrant.
D) He was a democrat.
E) He was a monarch.
5) The Mayflower Compact was
A) a treaty the Pilgrims made with the Indians.
B) a social contract.
C) the first colony established by European immigrants.
D) an example of the divine right of kings.
E) the list of complaints against the Church of England that led to the expulsion of the
Pilgrims.
6) Enlightenment thinkers argued that
A) God did not grant kings authority to govern.
B) government is best that governs the least.
C) reason, science, and religious tolerance hindered popular sovereignty.
D) Isaac Newton was a heretic for spreading ʺmalicious, nefarious, and dangerous lies.ʺ
E) monarchies are the most civilized forms of government.
7) The social contract theory says that
A) citizens give their consent to be governed.
B) civil contracts can be enforced by the government.
C) every society determines its own set of laws and moral codes.
D) by virtue of their social position, some citizens are more valuable than others.
E) governments can not interfere with the free market.
8) According to Hobbes, humanʹs natural state is
A) bliss.
B) cooperation.
C) philanthropy.
D) generosity.
E) war.
9) Locke argued that a major responsibility of governments is to protect
A) elected officials.
B) human dignity.
C) economic equality.
D) private property.
E) the people from themselves.
10) The Declaration of Independence claims a right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.
The phrase can be most directly attributed to the ideas of
A) Aristotle.
B) Machiavelli.
C) Newton.
D) Locke.
E) Hobbes.
1) The process by which policy decisions are made is known as
A) politics.
B) government.
C) the preamble.
D) multiculturalism.
E) Robertʹs rules.
2) How does the Constitution help ʺestablish justiceʺ?
A) The supremacy clause protects citizens from excessive government interference in
personal matters.
B) The Constitution guarantees judicial privacy.
C) The Constitution prohibits Congress from creating any court except for the Supreme
Court.
D) The Framers explicitly excluded voting rights for women, slaves, and landowners.
E) The Bill of Rights entitles accused citizens to a trial by jury.
3) Which of the following is NOT a function of government, as laid out in the Preamble to the
Constitution?
A) to secure the blessings of liberty
B) to provide for the common defense
C) to ensure domestic tranquility
D) to promote the general welfare
E) to ensure economic equality
4) Which of the following best describes Saddam Hussein?
A) He was an oligarch.
B) He was a patriarch.
C) He was a tyrant.
D) He was a democrat.
E) He was a monarch.
5) The Mayflower Compact was
A) a treaty the Pilgrims made with the Indians.
B) a social contract.
C) the first colony established by European immigrants.
D) an example of the divine right of kings.
E) the list of complaints against the Church of England that led to the expulsion of the
Pilgrims.
6) Enlightenment thinkers argued that
A) God did not grant kings authority to govern.
B) government is best that governs the least.
C) reason, science, and religious tolerance hindered popular sovereignty.
D) Isaac Newton was a heretic for spreading ʺmalicious, nefarious, and dangerous lies.ʺ
E) monarchies are the most civilized forms of government.
7) The social contract theory says that
A) citizens give their consent to be governed.
B) civil contracts can be enforced by the government.
C) every society determines its own set of laws and moral codes.
D) by virtue of their social position, some citizens are more valuable than others.
E) governments can not interfere with the free market.
8) According to Hobbes, humanʹs natural state is
A) bliss.
B) cooperation.
C) philanthropy.
D) generosity.
E) war.
9) Locke argued that a major responsibility of governments is to protect
A) elected officials.
B) human dignity.
C) economic equality.
D) private property.
E) the people from themselves.
10) The Declaration of Independence claims a right to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness.
The phrase can be most directly attributed to the ideas of
A) Aristotle.
B) Machiavelli.
C) Newton.
D) Locke.
E) Hobbes.
Sunday, September 11, 2011
UNIT 2 AP® UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT AND POLITICS
FREE-RESPONSE QUESTIONS
2004; #4
UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT AND POLITICS
SECTION II
1. Trust and confidence in government have declined in recent decades.
(a)Explain how divided government has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government. Be sure to include a definition of divided government in your response.
(b)Explain how the increased cost of election campaigns has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government.
(c)Explain two specific consequences of the decline in trust and confidence in government for individual political behavior.
Question 4 (2004)
6 POINTS TOTALPart (a): 2 points possible
Part (b): 2 points possible
Part (c): 2 points possible
Part a: (2 points) 1 point definition, 1 point explanation
Definition of divided government required for first point. (Essay must earn first point to be eligible for explanation point, below.)
Explanation point requires linkage between divided government and decline in trust/confidence. Acceptable responses may include linkage to:
•Heightened partisanship
•Decline of the middle (moderates frozen out, extremes driving legislation)
•Frustration with the governmental process
•Confirmation process slowed, stopped, or circumvented, increasing frustration/disgust
•Gridlock
Part b: (2 points) 2 point explanation
For the first point, acceptable explanations include:
•Candidates must spend more time raising money
•Role of interest groups (PACs), corporations and connections to wealthy donors
•Keeps good people from running for office
•Small contributions don't matter
•Perception that there is wasteful spending
To receive the second point, must provide linkage to cynicism or distrust.
Part c: (2 points) 1 point for each of two explanations
Acceptable behavioral consequences include:
•Protest
•Decline in voting
•Increase in independents or third-party identifiers
•Indications of less conventional participation, more non-conventional participation, or limitation to local nonpartisan or community action
My Response
Trust and confidence in government have declined in recent decades. The rate of voter participation in both the congressional and presidential election often hovers below 50%. Rates of approval for both branches currently are at an all-time low (40%for the Congress and the President).
A1.Divided government is defined as having different political parties occupying the executive and legislative branches simultaneously. The current situation in the United States has President Obama a Democrat contending with a Republican-controlled House of Representatives.
A2.Divided government has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government by creating both a heightened sense of partisanship and more damagingly, creating a situation called “gridlock” whereby bills and initiatives proposed either by the president or the congress are stopped in their tracks due to a lack of compromise between the parties. Nothing seems to get done in this climate. Consequently the American people feel a lack of trust and confidence in government.
B1.Another problem that has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government is the increased cost of election campaigns in the United States. Many Americans have come to view the US election campaign season with great cynicism. Ever greater amounts of money are raised each season-over $1 billion by the Obama campaign in 2008. A great percentage of donations come from both Political Action Committees and well as private corporations. There is a wide perception by the American people that these campaign contributions create unfair connections between donor and recipient-that candidates in effect are in the pockets of wealthy contributors. Despite efforts in campaign finance reform, so many loopholes exist for which to get around regulations that the American people feel a loss in trust and confidence in government.
C1.One specific consequence of the decline in trust and confidence in government for individual political behavior is that more Americans being turned off by the aforementioned problems, are less likely to vote. A general lack of political efficacy or “my vote doesn’t matter” is a common problem with many Americans. Our voting rate compared to that of other industrialized countries is less than 50% as compared to over 90%.
C2.Another specific consequence of the decline in trust and confidence in government for individual political behavior is that more Americans have begun to identify themselves with independent candidates or third party alternatives. The growth of the Tea Party in the United States is a case in point. Extreme dissatisfaction with the status quo have led many Americans to turn to a more extreme brand of conservatism that has led to even greater levels of polarization and partisanship between Republicans and Democrats. Many Tea Party candidates have led the government to move even further away from negotiation and compromise. As the result the American people currently have the lowest level of satisfaction with their government since prior to the Great Depression.
FREE-RESPONSE QUESTIONS
2004; #4
UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT AND POLITICS
SECTION II
1. Trust and confidence in government have declined in recent decades.
(a)Explain how divided government has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government. Be sure to include a definition of divided government in your response.
(b)Explain how the increased cost of election campaigns has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government.
(c)Explain two specific consequences of the decline in trust and confidence in government for individual political behavior.
Question 4 (2004)
6 POINTS TOTALPart (a): 2 points possible
Part (b): 2 points possible
Part (c): 2 points possible
Part a: (2 points) 1 point definition, 1 point explanation
Definition of divided government required for first point. (Essay must earn first point to be eligible for explanation point, below.)
Explanation point requires linkage between divided government and decline in trust/confidence. Acceptable responses may include linkage to:
•Heightened partisanship
•Decline of the middle (moderates frozen out, extremes driving legislation)
•Frustration with the governmental process
•Confirmation process slowed, stopped, or circumvented, increasing frustration/disgust
•Gridlock
Part b: (2 points) 2 point explanation
For the first point, acceptable explanations include:
•Candidates must spend more time raising money
•Role of interest groups (PACs), corporations and connections to wealthy donors
•Keeps good people from running for office
•Small contributions don't matter
•Perception that there is wasteful spending
To receive the second point, must provide linkage to cynicism or distrust.
Part c: (2 points) 1 point for each of two explanations
Acceptable behavioral consequences include:
•Protest
•Decline in voting
•Increase in independents or third-party identifiers
•Indications of less conventional participation, more non-conventional participation, or limitation to local nonpartisan or community action
My Response
Trust and confidence in government have declined in recent decades. The rate of voter participation in both the congressional and presidential election often hovers below 50%. Rates of approval for both branches currently are at an all-time low (40%for the Congress and the President).
A1.Divided government is defined as having different political parties occupying the executive and legislative branches simultaneously. The current situation in the United States has President Obama a Democrat contending with a Republican-controlled House of Representatives.
A2.Divided government has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government by creating both a heightened sense of partisanship and more damagingly, creating a situation called “gridlock” whereby bills and initiatives proposed either by the president or the congress are stopped in their tracks due to a lack of compromise between the parties. Nothing seems to get done in this climate. Consequently the American people feel a lack of trust and confidence in government.
B1.Another problem that has contributed to the decline in trust and confidence in government is the increased cost of election campaigns in the United States. Many Americans have come to view the US election campaign season with great cynicism. Ever greater amounts of money are raised each season-over $1 billion by the Obama campaign in 2008. A great percentage of donations come from both Political Action Committees and well as private corporations. There is a wide perception by the American people that these campaign contributions create unfair connections between donor and recipient-that candidates in effect are in the pockets of wealthy contributors. Despite efforts in campaign finance reform, so many loopholes exist for which to get around regulations that the American people feel a loss in trust and confidence in government.
C1.One specific consequence of the decline in trust and confidence in government for individual political behavior is that more Americans being turned off by the aforementioned problems, are less likely to vote. A general lack of political efficacy or “my vote doesn’t matter” is a common problem with many Americans. Our voting rate compared to that of other industrialized countries is less than 50% as compared to over 90%.
C2.Another specific consequence of the decline in trust and confidence in government for individual political behavior is that more Americans have begun to identify themselves with independent candidates or third party alternatives. The growth of the Tea Party in the United States is a case in point. Extreme dissatisfaction with the status quo have led many Americans to turn to a more extreme brand of conservatism that has led to even greater levels of polarization and partisanship between Republicans and Democrats. Many Tea Party candidates have led the government to move even further away from negotiation and compromise. As the result the American people currently have the lowest level of satisfaction with their government since prior to the Great Depression.
Thursday, September 8, 2011
Good Luck Tomorrow!
Advice for students taking tomorrow's Unit 2 exam:
(1) Get a good night's rest
(2) Review through the Pew Study Guide for Unit 2-don't spend too much time (10
mins. max)
(3) Review your flash cards for Unit 2
(4) Remember to allow about 30-50 secs. for each multiple-choice question to give
yourself the 20 minutes needed to tackle the FRQ.
(5) FRQ must (a) be answered in outine form (2) incorporate the question parts in
the answers.
See you tomorrow!!!
(1) Get a good night's rest
(2) Review through the Pew Study Guide for Unit 2-don't spend too much time (10
mins. max)
(3) Review your flash cards for Unit 2
(4) Remember to allow about 30-50 secs. for each multiple-choice question to give
yourself the 20 minutes needed to tackle the FRQ.
(5) FRQ must (a) be answered in outine form (2) incorporate the question parts in
the answers.
See you tomorrow!!!
2007 FRQ Response
A1. The winner-take-all feature of the Electoral College means that the candidate with the most votes (a majority) won against his/her competitor(s) within a particular state, wins that state’s electoral college votes.
B1. One way in which the winner-take-all feature affects how presidential candidates from the two presidential political parties run their campaigns is that they focus a majority of their time in “swing states” defined as those localities which could “swing” either to Republican or Democrat candidates as opposed to “safe states” that traditionally vote for a particular party (ie. The South for Republicans since the 1970’s). Swing states with their uncommitted electoral college votes are critical for victory and the winner-take-all system ensures that candidates and campaigns focus much of their time in swing states.
C1. One way in which the winner-take-all feature of the Electoral College hinders third-party candidates is that while a third party candidate such as Ralph Nadar may win a large number of popular votes in California, the winner-take-all systems does not allow him to collect a proportional amount of electoral college votes. He may make impressive gains across the country in terms of voters, yet not earn one electoral college vote which is necessary for winning the election.
D1. One of the reasons why the Electoral College has not been abolished is that it would require a Constitutional Amendment to abolish it. A Constitution Amendment through formal means is extremely difficult to accomplish requiring supermajorities in both Congress and at the state legislatures which is why there are only 27 Amendments to the Constitution.
D2. Another one of the reasons why the Electoral College has not been abolished is that small states with small populations constitutionally receive 3 electoral college votes respectively. This arrangement benefits small states. They actually have disproportional larger amounts of political influence. Accordingly, they would not be interested in ceding their power (ie. their 3 votes0 to larger states.
B1. One way in which the winner-take-all feature affects how presidential candidates from the two presidential political parties run their campaigns is that they focus a majority of their time in “swing states” defined as those localities which could “swing” either to Republican or Democrat candidates as opposed to “safe states” that traditionally vote for a particular party (ie. The South for Republicans since the 1970’s). Swing states with their uncommitted electoral college votes are critical for victory and the winner-take-all system ensures that candidates and campaigns focus much of their time in swing states.
C1. One way in which the winner-take-all feature of the Electoral College hinders third-party candidates is that while a third party candidate such as Ralph Nadar may win a large number of popular votes in California, the winner-take-all systems does not allow him to collect a proportional amount of electoral college votes. He may make impressive gains across the country in terms of voters, yet not earn one electoral college vote which is necessary for winning the election.
D1. One of the reasons why the Electoral College has not been abolished is that it would require a Constitutional Amendment to abolish it. A Constitution Amendment through formal means is extremely difficult to accomplish requiring supermajorities in both Congress and at the state legislatures which is why there are only 27 Amendments to the Constitution.
D2. Another one of the reasons why the Electoral College has not been abolished is that small states with small populations constitutionally receive 3 electoral college votes respectively. This arrangement benefits small states. They actually have disproportional larger amounts of political influence. Accordingly, they would not be interested in ceding their power (ie. their 3 votes0 to larger states.
Wednesday, September 7, 2011
Sabato Chapter 14.3 Pages 521-530
1) In the weeks before the 2004 presidential debates,
A) the Bush campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Kerryʹs skills.
B) the Kerry campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Bushʹs skills.
C) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their own debating skills.
D) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their opponentʹs debating skills.
E) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played down their opponentʹs debating skills.
2) What was the Supreme Courtʹs decision in McConnell v. Federal Election Commission?
A) The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act was unconstitutional.
B) Preventing political corruption overrides the partiesʹ free speech rights.
C) Congress can not restrict political contributions.
D) Public financing of political campaigns is unconstitutional.
E) McConnell lacked standing to sue and the case was sent back to the district court.
3) Which of the following is a provision of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act?
A) All campaigns must accept matching funds.
B) Congressional campaigns will be publicly funded.
C) A prohibition on soft money.
D) Supporters can no longer give money to a candidateʹs campaign committees; all money
must be given directly to candidates.
E) Citizens can give no more than $500 to a single candidate and no more than $2000 to any
candidate in a given election cycle.
4) Which of the following is least important for holding free and fair elections?
A) freedom of speech
B) a lengthy campaign season
C) freedom of assembly
D) a lack of government coercion over the process
E) secret ballots
5) Who can establish political action committees?
A) interest groups
B) candidates
C) foreign citizens
D) political parties
E) government entities
6) How does the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act affect political action committees?
A) PACs are prohibited from giving money to incumbents.
B) PACs are prohibited from giving money to challengers.
C) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for electioneering communications only.
D) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for administrative costs only.
E) PACS are prohibited from giving candidates money within 90 days of an upcoming
election.
7) Who establishes leadership PACs?
A) labor unions
B) corporations
C) members of Congress
D) trade associations
E) CEOs
8) Who can contribute unlimited amounts of money to a candidateʹs campaign?
A) individual citizens
B) 527 groups
C) corporate PACs
D) leadership PACs
E) Candidates can contribute unlimited amounts of money to their own campaigns.
9) How does public financing work in the general election?
A) Congressional candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to
spend any additional money.
B) Presidential candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to spend
any additional money.
C) Congressional candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
D) Presidential candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
E) Presidential and congressional candidates share whatever money is available in the
Election Campaign Fund.
10) Which of the following groups thinks that regulations on campaign contributions are a good
thing?
A) National Rifle Association
B) American Civil Liberties Union
C) Common Cause
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
A) the Bush campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Kerryʹs skills.
B) the Kerry campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Bushʹs skills.
C) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their own debating skills.
D) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their opponentʹs debating skills.
E) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played down their opponentʹs debating skills.
2) What was the Supreme Courtʹs decision in McConnell v. Federal Election Commission?
A) The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act was unconstitutional.
B) Preventing political corruption overrides the partiesʹ free speech rights.
C) Congress can not restrict political contributions.
D) Public financing of political campaigns is unconstitutional.
E) McConnell lacked standing to sue and the case was sent back to the district court.
3) Which of the following is a provision of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act?
A) All campaigns must accept matching funds.
B) Congressional campaigns will be publicly funded.
C) A prohibition on soft money.
D) Supporters can no longer give money to a candidateʹs campaign committees; all money
must be given directly to candidates.
E) Citizens can give no more than $500 to a single candidate and no more than $2000 to any
candidate in a given election cycle.
4) Which of the following is least important for holding free and fair elections?
A) freedom of speech
B) a lengthy campaign season
C) freedom of assembly
D) a lack of government coercion over the process
E) secret ballots
5) Who can establish political action committees?
A) interest groups
B) candidates
C) foreign citizens
D) political parties
E) government entities
6) How does the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act affect political action committees?
A) PACs are prohibited from giving money to incumbents.
B) PACs are prohibited from giving money to challengers.
C) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for electioneering communications only.
D) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for administrative costs only.
E) PACS are prohibited from giving candidates money within 90 days of an upcoming
election.
7) Who establishes leadership PACs?
A) labor unions
B) corporations
C) members of Congress
D) trade associations
E) CEOs
8) Who can contribute unlimited amounts of money to a candidateʹs campaign?
A) individual citizens
B) 527 groups
C) corporate PACs
D) leadership PACs
E) Candidates can contribute unlimited amounts of money to their own campaigns.
9) How does public financing work in the general election?
A) Congressional candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to
spend any additional money.
B) Presidential candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to spend
any additional money.
C) Congressional candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
D) Presidential candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
E) Presidential and congressional candidates share whatever money is available in the
Election Campaign Fund.
10) Which of the following groups thinks that regulations on campaign contributions are a good
thing?
A) National Rifle Association
B) American Civil Liberties Union
C) Common Cause
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Tuesday, September 6, 2011
Sabato 14.2 Pages 515-521
1) In a political campaign, ________ usually announces good news and ________ usually
announces bad news.
A) the press secretary; the communications director
B) the candidate; the press secretary
C) the policy director; the campaign manager
D) the chair; the campaign manager
E) the Democratic candidate; the Republican candidate
2) In 2004, which campaign was especially effective in using the Internet for fundraising?
A) George W. Bush
B) John Kerry
C) Howard Dean
D) John Edwards
E) Dennis Kucinich
3) Who is George W. Bushʹs personal adviser and the mastermind behind his presidential
victories in 2000 and 2004?
A) Ken Mehlman
B) Marc Raciot
C) Kelly McCullough
D) Joe Trippi
E) Karl Rove
4) In the United States, negative campaigning is
A) ineffective.
B) a relatively new phenomena.
C) a function of the television age.
D) a modern phenomena that began around 1960.
E) a political tactic that has been around since the founding.
5) One way of counteracting an anticipated campaign attack by your opponent before the attack
is even launched is
A) proactive advertising.
B) inoculation advertising.
C) a first-strike strategy.
D) a defensive posture.
E) mutually assured destruction.
6) In covering campaigns, the news media are most likely to focus on
A) the candidatesʹ issue positions.
B) the pros and cons of various public policy options for society as a whole.
C) the candidatesʹ performances in previous elected positions.
D) polling.
E) issues of concern to young voters.
7) The advent of new media heavily reliant on computer technology has enabled campaigns to
give prompt and informed responses to changes in the political environment. This is known
as
A) battle bots.
B) the nuclear option.
C) going public.
D) rapid response.
E) straight talk.
8) Since the advent of the new media, citizens can log onto a candidateʹs Web site and engage in
a nearly contemporaneous exchange of ideas with other supporters and with the candidateʹs
Internet team. What is this new technology called?
A) email
B) imagined communities
C) blogs
D) social capitalism
E) wikis
9) Which of the following is true concerning how the campaigns attempt to influence their media
coverage?
A) Campaigns attempt to inundate the press with access to the candidate.
B) Campaigns try to avoid speaking in sound bites.
C) Campaigns try to persuade the media to cover their gaffes.
D) Campaigns avoid spinning campaign events so as not to be perceived as browbeating
reporters.
E) Campaigns try to get the campaignʹs message out by using talk shows and comedy
programs.
10) The 2004 presidential debates
A) spurred Bush to a temporary lead in the polls.
B) altered the results of the election.
C) increased knowledge about the candidates.
D) were boycotted by George W. Bush.
E) were boycotted by John Kerry.
announces bad news.
A) the press secretary; the communications director
B) the candidate; the press secretary
C) the policy director; the campaign manager
D) the chair; the campaign manager
E) the Democratic candidate; the Republican candidate
2) In 2004, which campaign was especially effective in using the Internet for fundraising?
A) George W. Bush
B) John Kerry
C) Howard Dean
D) John Edwards
E) Dennis Kucinich
3) Who is George W. Bushʹs personal adviser and the mastermind behind his presidential
victories in 2000 and 2004?
A) Ken Mehlman
B) Marc Raciot
C) Kelly McCullough
D) Joe Trippi
E) Karl Rove
4) In the United States, negative campaigning is
A) ineffective.
B) a relatively new phenomena.
C) a function of the television age.
D) a modern phenomena that began around 1960.
E) a political tactic that has been around since the founding.
5) One way of counteracting an anticipated campaign attack by your opponent before the attack
is even launched is
A) proactive advertising.
B) inoculation advertising.
C) a first-strike strategy.
D) a defensive posture.
E) mutually assured destruction.
6) In covering campaigns, the news media are most likely to focus on
A) the candidatesʹ issue positions.
B) the pros and cons of various public policy options for society as a whole.
C) the candidatesʹ performances in previous elected positions.
D) polling.
E) issues of concern to young voters.
7) The advent of new media heavily reliant on computer technology has enabled campaigns to
give prompt and informed responses to changes in the political environment. This is known
as
A) battle bots.
B) the nuclear option.
C) going public.
D) rapid response.
E) straight talk.
8) Since the advent of the new media, citizens can log onto a candidateʹs Web site and engage in
a nearly contemporaneous exchange of ideas with other supporters and with the candidateʹs
Internet team. What is this new technology called?
A) email
B) imagined communities
C) blogs
D) social capitalism
E) wikis
9) Which of the following is true concerning how the campaigns attempt to influence their media
coverage?
A) Campaigns attempt to inundate the press with access to the candidate.
B) Campaigns try to avoid speaking in sound bites.
C) Campaigns try to persuade the media to cover their gaffes.
D) Campaigns avoid spinning campaign events so as not to be perceived as browbeating
reporters.
E) Campaigns try to get the campaignʹs message out by using talk shows and comedy
programs.
10) The 2004 presidential debates
A) spurred Bush to a temporary lead in the polls.
B) altered the results of the election.
C) increased knowledge about the candidates.
D) were boycotted by George W. Bush.
E) were boycotted by John Kerry.
Friday, September 2, 2011
14.1 Multiple-Choice Questions Pages 509-514
1) During the nomination campaign, party leaders are primarily concerned with ________, while
party activists are concerned with ________.
A) preventing election fraud; crossover voting
B) logrolling; casework
C) gerrymandering; the franking privilege
D) electability; ideology
E) preserving deniability; image
2) Which of the following mistakes are candidates most likely to make in their nominating
campaigns, making it difficult for them to win the general election?
A) They become one-trick ponies.
B) They insult their base.
C) They become too extreme.
D) They engage in credit taking.
E) They become insular and detached from their own party.
3) Which of the following campaign slogans is a candidate most likely to use?
A) ʺIʹm on your side.ʺ
B) ʺUpholding liberal Democratic values.ʺ
C) ʺUp with America! Down with immigrants!ʺ
D) ʺA Republican leader with conservative ideas.ʺ
E) ʺIʹll work hard to criminalize abortion.
4) Which of the following is a wedge issue?
A) fighting crime
B) improving education
C) improving the economy
D) same-sex marriage
E) creating jobs
5) What is a wedge issue?
A) an issue that is used to divide the public for strategic campaign purposes
B) an issue on which most Americans agree
C) a ʺbread and butterʺ issue
D) a campaign gaffe
E) an issue that a candidate supports even though he knows Congress will not pass it into
Law
6) Why did Senate Republicans have a roll-call vote on a constitutional amendment that would
ban same-sex marriage?
A) because they expected that it would pass
B) because they wanted to be able to use the vote against Democrats in the 2006 elections
C) because most Americans support same-sex marriage
D) because they wanted to punish Dick Cheneyʹs daughter for speaking out against the
Republican agenda
E) because few Americans are concerned about same-sex marriage
7) The 2006 elections saw a large number of
A) Republican African American candidates.
B) Republican Hispanic candidates.
C) openly gay and lesbian candidates.
D) Republican veterans from Iraq and Afghanistan.
E) Democratic veterans from Iraq and Afghanistan.
8) The two basic methods of voter canvass are
A) campaign stops and glad-handing.
B) door-to-door solicitations and phone banks.
C) public opinion polls and focus groups.
D) meet-and-greets and fundraisers.
E) shaking hands and kissing babies.
9) The head of a political campaign is usually called the
A) campaign consultant.
B) head honcho.
C) political manager.
D) campaign manager.
E) political strategist.
10) Who is responsible for a candidateʹs overall media strategy?
A) the press secretary
B) the general counsel
C) the outside counsel
D) the field director
E) the communications director
party activists are concerned with ________.
A) preventing election fraud; crossover voting
B) logrolling; casework
C) gerrymandering; the franking privilege
D) electability; ideology
E) preserving deniability; image
2) Which of the following mistakes are candidates most likely to make in their nominating
campaigns, making it difficult for them to win the general election?
A) They become one-trick ponies.
B) They insult their base.
C) They become too extreme.
D) They engage in credit taking.
E) They become insular and detached from their own party.
3) Which of the following campaign slogans is a candidate most likely to use?
A) ʺIʹm on your side.ʺ
B) ʺUpholding liberal Democratic values.ʺ
C) ʺUp with America! Down with immigrants!ʺ
D) ʺA Republican leader with conservative ideas.ʺ
E) ʺIʹll work hard to criminalize abortion.
4) Which of the following is a wedge issue?
A) fighting crime
B) improving education
C) improving the economy
D) same-sex marriage
E) creating jobs
5) What is a wedge issue?
A) an issue that is used to divide the public for strategic campaign purposes
B) an issue on which most Americans agree
C) a ʺbread and butterʺ issue
D) a campaign gaffe
E) an issue that a candidate supports even though he knows Congress will not pass it into
Law
6) Why did Senate Republicans have a roll-call vote on a constitutional amendment that would
ban same-sex marriage?
A) because they expected that it would pass
B) because they wanted to be able to use the vote against Democrats in the 2006 elections
C) because most Americans support same-sex marriage
D) because they wanted to punish Dick Cheneyʹs daughter for speaking out against the
Republican agenda
E) because few Americans are concerned about same-sex marriage
7) The 2006 elections saw a large number of
A) Republican African American candidates.
B) Republican Hispanic candidates.
C) openly gay and lesbian candidates.
D) Republican veterans from Iraq and Afghanistan.
E) Democratic veterans from Iraq and Afghanistan.
8) The two basic methods of voter canvass are
A) campaign stops and glad-handing.
B) door-to-door solicitations and phone banks.
C) public opinion polls and focus groups.
D) meet-and-greets and fundraisers.
E) shaking hands and kissing babies.
9) The head of a political campaign is usually called the
A) campaign consultant.
B) head honcho.
C) political manager.
D) campaign manager.
E) political strategist.
10) Who is responsible for a candidateʹs overall media strategy?
A) the press secretary
B) the general counsel
C) the outside counsel
D) the field director
E) the communications director
Thursday, September 1, 2011
13.4 Pages 485 to 497
1) When compared to the U.S. population as a whole, which of the following groups is most
underrepresented at the indicated national convention?
A) those with advanced degrees at the Democratic convention
B) the wealthy at the Democratic convention
C) women at the Democratic convention
D) minorities at the Republican convention
E) minorities at the Democratic convention
2) The 1968 Democratic National Convention was thrown into turmoil over the Vietnam War. As
a result, the Democratic Party
A) took steps to increase the influence of party leaders.
B) took steps to make the convention more broadly representative.
C) toned down the hype associated with their convention.
D) no longer permits young Democrats to serve as delegates.
E) must receive advance clearance from the president to hold a convention during wartime.
3) How did the Twelfth Amendment change the Electoral College?
A) It mandates a direct popular election for president.
B) If there is no majority winner in the Electoral College, the Senate will select the president.
C) The Electoral College conducts separate elections for president and for vice president.
D) It mandates that electors vote for a president and a vice president from the same state.
E) It creates a separate College of Electors to select the president if there is no majority
winner.
4) How is the president selected if no candidate receives a majority of votes in the Electoral
College?
A) The Supreme Court selects the president.
B) A joint session of Congress selects the president.
C) The winner of the popular vote becomes president.
D) The House selects the president.
E) The Senate selects the president.
5) There have been several proposals for changing the Electoral College. How would the
proposed congressional district plan work?
A) States would award their electoral votes to the winner of the national popular vote.
B) It would abolish the incentives for faithless electors.
C) Candidates would receive electors according to how many congressional districts they
won. The statewide winner would receive two additional electors.
D) The Electoral College would be required to vote for the winner of the popular vote,
regardless of who received the most votes in their state.
E) Each member of Congress would appoint one elector, resulting is an Electoral College
that was broadly representative of the preferences of the country as a whole.
6) Which of the following contributes to the incumbency advantage?
A) constituency service
B) federally funded reelection bids
C) scandals
D) the ability to donate unlimited money to incumbentsʹ campaigns
E) Incumbents can use taxpayer money to pay for their campaign ads.
7) What is the ʺscare offʺ effect?
A) Incumbents sometimes decide not to seek reelection because the fundraising
requirements are daunting.
B) Incumbents sometimes decide not to seek reelection because they can make more money
in the private sector.
C) High-quality challengers are less likely to run against an incumbent.
D) Voters tend to avoid incumbents who are involved in a scandal.
E) Voters tend not to vote when they donʹt like either of the candidates.
8) What is gerrymandering?
A) redrawing district lines for partisan gain
B) supporting one candidate in the primary and another in the general election
C) voting for a candidate who is more likely to win in the general election, even though she
is not your preferred candidate
D) sending mail to your constituents at taxpayer expense in order to boost name recognition
E) when members of Congress vote for nonbinding resolutions in order to increase their
Popularity
9) The outcome of the 2006 midterm congressional elections can best be understood in terms of
A) the coattail effect.
B) the sixth-year itch.
C) the bandwagon effect.
D) the ʺscare-offʺ effect.
E) the Ted Kennedy effect.
10) All of the following contributed to Republican losses in the 2006 congressional elections
EXCEPT
A) scandals
B) accusations of corruption
C) George W. Bushʹs low approval ratings
D) the situation in Iraq
E) near-record lows in the stock market
underrepresented at the indicated national convention?
A) those with advanced degrees at the Democratic convention
B) the wealthy at the Democratic convention
C) women at the Democratic convention
D) minorities at the Republican convention
E) minorities at the Democratic convention
2) The 1968 Democratic National Convention was thrown into turmoil over the Vietnam War. As
a result, the Democratic Party
A) took steps to increase the influence of party leaders.
B) took steps to make the convention more broadly representative.
C) toned down the hype associated with their convention.
D) no longer permits young Democrats to serve as delegates.
E) must receive advance clearance from the president to hold a convention during wartime.
3) How did the Twelfth Amendment change the Electoral College?
A) It mandates a direct popular election for president.
B) If there is no majority winner in the Electoral College, the Senate will select the president.
C) The Electoral College conducts separate elections for president and for vice president.
D) It mandates that electors vote for a president and a vice president from the same state.
E) It creates a separate College of Electors to select the president if there is no majority
winner.
4) How is the president selected if no candidate receives a majority of votes in the Electoral
College?
A) The Supreme Court selects the president.
B) A joint session of Congress selects the president.
C) The winner of the popular vote becomes president.
D) The House selects the president.
E) The Senate selects the president.
5) There have been several proposals for changing the Electoral College. How would the
proposed congressional district plan work?
A) States would award their electoral votes to the winner of the national popular vote.
B) It would abolish the incentives for faithless electors.
C) Candidates would receive electors according to how many congressional districts they
won. The statewide winner would receive two additional electors.
D) The Electoral College would be required to vote for the winner of the popular vote,
regardless of who received the most votes in their state.
E) Each member of Congress would appoint one elector, resulting is an Electoral College
that was broadly representative of the preferences of the country as a whole.
6) Which of the following contributes to the incumbency advantage?
A) constituency service
B) federally funded reelection bids
C) scandals
D) the ability to donate unlimited money to incumbentsʹ campaigns
E) Incumbents can use taxpayer money to pay for their campaign ads.
7) What is the ʺscare offʺ effect?
A) Incumbents sometimes decide not to seek reelection because the fundraising
requirements are daunting.
B) Incumbents sometimes decide not to seek reelection because they can make more money
in the private sector.
C) High-quality challengers are less likely to run against an incumbent.
D) Voters tend to avoid incumbents who are involved in a scandal.
E) Voters tend not to vote when they donʹt like either of the candidates.
8) What is gerrymandering?
A) redrawing district lines for partisan gain
B) supporting one candidate in the primary and another in the general election
C) voting for a candidate who is more likely to win in the general election, even though she
is not your preferred candidate
D) sending mail to your constituents at taxpayer expense in order to boost name recognition
E) when members of Congress vote for nonbinding resolutions in order to increase their
Popularity
9) The outcome of the 2006 midterm congressional elections can best be understood in terms of
A) the coattail effect.
B) the sixth-year itch.
C) the bandwagon effect.
D) the ʺscare-offʺ effect.
E) the Ted Kennedy effect.
10) All of the following contributed to Republican losses in the 2006 congressional elections
EXCEPT
A) scandals
B) accusations of corruption
C) George W. Bushʹs low approval ratings
D) the situation in Iraq
E) near-record lows in the stock market
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)