1) How does the Constitution define impeachable offenses?
A) ʺthose acts which by their very Nature breach the public trust.ʺ
B) ʺa felony of any class.ʺ
C) ʺabuse of power or reckless disregard for the Principles of Democracy.ʺ
D) ʺTreason, Bribery, or other high Crimes and Misdemeanors.ʺ
E) ʺactions contrary to the Interests of the Union, or those actions which Appear contrary.ʺ
2) Who conducts impeachment trials?
A) the House of Representatives
B) the Senate
C) a joint session of Congress
D) the Supreme Court
E) the presidentʹs cabinet
3) The House of Representatives has the sole power to
A) try impeached officials.
B) approve treaties.
C) make agreements with the executive.
D) initiate revenue bills.
E) declare war.
4) The Senate has the sole power to
A) declare war.
B) approve major presidential appointments.
C) regulate the District of Columbia.
D) issue patents and copyrights.
E) establish post offices and post roads.
5) Which of the following accurately characterizes a difference in the way the House and Senate
operate?
A) The House is more formal than the Senate.
B) The Senate leadership is more powerful than the House leadership.
C) Authority in the Senate is concentrated while authority in the house is diffuse.
D) House rules permit a filibuster but Senate rules do not.
E) It is easier to pass legislation in the Senate than in the House.
6) The leader of the House of Representatives is called the
A) majority leader.
B) President of the House.
C) Speaker of the House.
D) ombudsman.
E) president pro tempore.
7) What kind of Speaker was Newt Gingrich?
A) a powerful Speaker who had considerable control over the House
B) a weak Speaker who had very little control over the House
C) a behind-the-scenes Speaker who stayed out of the limelight
D) a corrupt Speaker who resigned after he was indicted by a Texas grand jury
E) a go-along-to-get-along Speaker
8) What was J. Dennis Hastertʹs style as Speaker?
A) aggressive
B) flamboyant
C) pragmatic and cautious
D) extravagant and overzealous
E) knee-jerk and hot-headed
9) Which of the following best summarized the outcome of the 2006 elections?
A) Republicans retained control of both chambers.
B) Democrats retained control of both chambers.
C) Republicans regained control of both chambers.
D) Democrats regained control of both chambers.
E) Democrats regained control of the House, while Republicans retained control of the
Senate.
10) The congressional leaders who line up members on partisan issues and serve as a link between
the rank-and-file members and the leadership are called
A) whips.
B) majority leaders.
C) minority leaders.
D) parliamentarians.
E) sergeants at arms.
Thursday, December 1, 2011
Wednesday, November 30, 2011
Chapter 7.1 Pages 239 to 242
1) Nancy Pelosi is the first woman
A) to serve in Congress.
B) elected to Congress from California.
C) selected as the Democratic whip in the House of Representatives.
D) to serve as Speaker of the House.
E) to serve as President of the Senate.
2) The U.S. Congress is
A) the only democratically elected legislature in the world.
B) prohibited from passing laws that might conflict with state laws.
C) required to reapportion every year.
D) nonpartisan.
E) bicameral.
3) The structure of the legislative branch of government is described by ________ of the
Constitution.
A) Article I B) Article II C) Article III D) Article IV E) Article V
4) Members of the House of Representatives must
A) be at least thirty years old.
B) have lived in the United States for at least seven years.
C) pass a religious test.
D) take an oath to uphold socialist principles.
E) all of the above
5) There are ________ members of the House of Representatives and ________ members of the
Senate.
A) 376; 50 B) 435; 50 C) 435; 100 D) 527; 50 E) 527; 100
6) Senators are elected for ________-year terms.
A) two B) four C) six D) seven E) eight
7) Apportionment and redistricting typically occur every
A) two years.
B) four years.
C) six years.
D) 10 years.
E) 20 years.
8) According to Article I, section 8 of the Constitution, Congress has the power to
A) lay and collect taxes.
B) grant titles of nobility.
C) pass ex post facto laws.
D) revoke natural laws.
E) impeach state governors.
9) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) requires the direct election of senators.
B) limits the sale or importation of alcoholic beverages.
C) limits the president to two consecutive terms.
D) limits congressional salaries.
E) establishes an income tax.
10) The Constitution gives formal law-making powers to
A) Congress.
B) the House of Representatives but not the Senate.
C) the Senate but not the House of Representatives.
D) the bureaucracy.
E) the executive branch.
A) to serve in Congress.
B) elected to Congress from California.
C) selected as the Democratic whip in the House of Representatives.
D) to serve as Speaker of the House.
E) to serve as President of the Senate.
2) The U.S. Congress is
A) the only democratically elected legislature in the world.
B) prohibited from passing laws that might conflict with state laws.
C) required to reapportion every year.
D) nonpartisan.
E) bicameral.
3) The structure of the legislative branch of government is described by ________ of the
Constitution.
A) Article I B) Article II C) Article III D) Article IV E) Article V
4) Members of the House of Representatives must
A) be at least thirty years old.
B) have lived in the United States for at least seven years.
C) pass a religious test.
D) take an oath to uphold socialist principles.
E) all of the above
5) There are ________ members of the House of Representatives and ________ members of the
Senate.
A) 376; 50 B) 435; 50 C) 435; 100 D) 527; 50 E) 527; 100
6) Senators are elected for ________-year terms.
A) two B) four C) six D) seven E) eight
7) Apportionment and redistricting typically occur every
A) two years.
B) four years.
C) six years.
D) 10 years.
E) 20 years.
8) According to Article I, section 8 of the Constitution, Congress has the power to
A) lay and collect taxes.
B) grant titles of nobility.
C) pass ex post facto laws.
D) revoke natural laws.
E) impeach state governors.
9) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) requires the direct election of senators.
B) limits the sale or importation of alcoholic beverages.
C) limits the president to two consecutive terms.
D) limits congressional salaries.
E) establishes an income tax.
10) The Constitution gives formal law-making powers to
A) Congress.
B) the House of Representatives but not the Senate.
C) the Senate but not the House of Representatives.
D) the bureaucracy.
E) the executive branch.
Thursday, November 17, 2011
FRQ on Elections and the Media
In the 1990's presidential election campaigns have become more candidate centered and less focusedon issues and party labels. This change has been attributed both to how the media cover presidential campaigns and to how candidates use the media.
A. Identify and explain two ways in which the media have contributed to candidate-centered presidential campaigns.
B. Identify and explain two ways in which presidential candidates' use of the media has contributed to candidate centered campaigns.
Your answer should NOT include a discussion of presidential primary elections.
It's fair to say that both the media and presidential candidates have benefited symbiotically from one another during presidential campaigns. Both stand to gain significantly under this relationship with media recording profits from their coverage while candidates stand to potentially win an election with the appropriate amount of media exposure.
A1. One way in which the MEDIA contributes to candidate-centered campaigns is through the coverage of background on a perspective presidential candidate. During the 2008 election profiles of all of the major candidates were covered on most of the major networks. Many Americans tune in with fascination to learn about a candidates' early beginnings.
A2. Another way in which the MEDIA contributes to candidate-centered campaigns is through feeding frenzy coverage of a candidate's potential wrong-doing. In the case of John McCain during the 2008 election, allegations of an alleged affair with a staff member while unsubstantiated played to a huge spike in audience attention-undoubtedly boosting ratings and revenue for the media.
B1. One way in which CANDIDATES use of the media contributes to candidate-centered campaigns centers around the use of negative commercials and mudslinging to defame their competitor during election time. Millions of dollars are spent by campaigns to buy advertising time during elections and attempt manipulate public opinion usually through attack and smear campaigns that are viewed during prime time.
B2. Another way in which CANDIDATES use of the media contributes to candidate-centered campaigns is through attention-gathering public appearances to enhance public attention to individual qualities. One public attention appearance that backfired against George W. Bush was his entry onto the flight deck of an aircraft carrier with the emblem "Mission Accomplished" emblazoned on the ship. The war in Iraq could hardly have been characterized as completed during this publicity stunt. This public appearance actually had the opposite effect and led to a precipitous decline in Bush's popularity.
A. Identify and explain two ways in which the media have contributed to candidate-centered presidential campaigns.
B. Identify and explain two ways in which presidential candidates' use of the media has contributed to candidate centered campaigns.
Your answer should NOT include a discussion of presidential primary elections.
It's fair to say that both the media and presidential candidates have benefited symbiotically from one another during presidential campaigns. Both stand to gain significantly under this relationship with media recording profits from their coverage while candidates stand to potentially win an election with the appropriate amount of media exposure.
A1. One way in which the MEDIA contributes to candidate-centered campaigns is through the coverage of background on a perspective presidential candidate. During the 2008 election profiles of all of the major candidates were covered on most of the major networks. Many Americans tune in with fascination to learn about a candidates' early beginnings.
A2. Another way in which the MEDIA contributes to candidate-centered campaigns is through feeding frenzy coverage of a candidate's potential wrong-doing. In the case of John McCain during the 2008 election, allegations of an alleged affair with a staff member while unsubstantiated played to a huge spike in audience attention-undoubtedly boosting ratings and revenue for the media.
B1. One way in which CANDIDATES use of the media contributes to candidate-centered campaigns centers around the use of negative commercials and mudslinging to defame their competitor during election time. Millions of dollars are spent by campaigns to buy advertising time during elections and attempt manipulate public opinion usually through attack and smear campaigns that are viewed during prime time.
B2. Another way in which CANDIDATES use of the media contributes to candidate-centered campaigns is through attention-gathering public appearances to enhance public attention to individual qualities. One public attention appearance that backfired against George W. Bush was his entry onto the flight deck of an aircraft carrier with the emblem "Mission Accomplished" emblazoned on the ship. The war in Iraq could hardly have been characterized as completed during this publicity stunt. This public appearance actually had the opposite effect and led to a precipitous decline in Bush's popularity.
15.4 Pages 569 to 575
1) What position did Tony Snow have before becoming George W. Bushʹs press secretary?
A) He was the chair of George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection committee.
B) He was the White House chief of staff.
C) He was a member of the House of Representatives from Virginia.
D) He was a Fox News commentator.
E) He was a Texas oil tycoon and a major contributor to George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection.
2) Which of the following best describes George W. Bushʹs relationship with the press?
A) He is exceedingly accessible to the press.
B) He is frequently available to answer journalistsʹ questions in both formal and informal
settings.
C) He is very tight-lipped.
D) He has a jovial relationship with the press.
E) He has an open-door policy for journalists.
3) Which of the following best describes media coverage of the George W. Bush presidency?
A) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs leadership.
B) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs prowess for public policies.
C) Journalists cover the Bush presidency in an overwhelmingly negative light.
D) Journalists cover the Bush presidency as exceedingly honest and forthright.
E) Journalists cover the Bush presidency with awe and admiration for the presidentʹs
successes.
4) Media coverage of Congress by network affiliates tends to concentrates on
A) Newt Gingrich and Strom Thurmond.
B) local members of Congress.
C) foreign policy.
D) freshmen representatives.
E) economic issues.
5) Why did the ʺmission accomplishedʺ banner backfire on George W. Bush?
A) because ordinary voters did not understand the banner
B) because the banner seemed to contradict what he said in his speech
C) because the banner cost over $100,000
D) because it fell down while he was giving his speech, making the military look inept
E) because it later underscored Bushʹs unrealistic expectations for the war in Iraq
6) Which political institution receives the least media coverage?
A) the House of Representatives
B) the Senate
C) the president
D) Congress
E) the Supreme Court
7) The media have the greatest influence on
A) hardcore liberals.
B) hardcore conservatives.
C) strong Democrats.
D) strong Republicans.
E) independents.
8) The media have the greatest influence on public opinion about
A) neighborhood crime.
B) childrearing.
C) inflation.
D) domestic policies.
E) events in foreign countries.
9) What is agenda setting?
A) the ability of the media to tell the public what issues the public should be thinking about
B) the tendency to remember only those news stories that are consistent with oneʹs
predispositions
C) the ability of the media to influence the publicʹs opinions on issues
D) the mediaʹs focus on scandal and corruption
E) the publicʹs ability to determine what issues the media covers.
10) Which of the following accurately describes American journalists?
A) They tend to be libertarian.
B) They tend to be socially conservative.
C) They tend to be anti-establishment.
D) They tend to be economically conservative.
E) They are just as likely to be registered Democrats as registered Republicans.
11) The mediaʹs coverage of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 suggests that the media may
have a
A) liberal bias.
B) anti-incumbent bias.
C) corporate bias.
D) Democratic bias.
E) status quo bias.
12) Those who claim that the media has a conservative bias point to
A) FOX News.
B) a corporate mentality that is hesitant to criticize possible sponsors.
C) fiscally conservative corporate interests of companies that own the media.
D) the lack of media skepticism given to the Bush administrationʹs arguments for waging
war in Iraq.
E) All of the above.
13) Which of the following best summarizes ideological bias in the media?
A) The media have a strong liberal bias.
B) The media have a strong conservative bias.
C) The media have a liberal bias on social issues and a conservative bias on economic issues.
D) The media have a conservative bias on social issues and a liberal bias on economic issues.
E) Liberals think the media has a conservative bias and conservatives think the media has a
liberal bias.
A) He was the chair of George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection committee.
B) He was the White House chief of staff.
C) He was a member of the House of Representatives from Virginia.
D) He was a Fox News commentator.
E) He was a Texas oil tycoon and a major contributor to George W. Bushʹs 2006 reelection.
2) Which of the following best describes George W. Bushʹs relationship with the press?
A) He is exceedingly accessible to the press.
B) He is frequently available to answer journalistsʹ questions in both formal and informal
settings.
C) He is very tight-lipped.
D) He has a jovial relationship with the press.
E) He has an open-door policy for journalists.
3) Which of the following best describes media coverage of the George W. Bush presidency?
A) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs leadership.
B) Journalists frequently praise George W. Bushʹs prowess for public policies.
C) Journalists cover the Bush presidency in an overwhelmingly negative light.
D) Journalists cover the Bush presidency as exceedingly honest and forthright.
E) Journalists cover the Bush presidency with awe and admiration for the presidentʹs
successes.
4) Media coverage of Congress by network affiliates tends to concentrates on
A) Newt Gingrich and Strom Thurmond.
B) local members of Congress.
C) foreign policy.
D) freshmen representatives.
E) economic issues.
5) Why did the ʺmission accomplishedʺ banner backfire on George W. Bush?
A) because ordinary voters did not understand the banner
B) because the banner seemed to contradict what he said in his speech
C) because the banner cost over $100,000
D) because it fell down while he was giving his speech, making the military look inept
E) because it later underscored Bushʹs unrealistic expectations for the war in Iraq
6) Which political institution receives the least media coverage?
A) the House of Representatives
B) the Senate
C) the president
D) Congress
E) the Supreme Court
7) The media have the greatest influence on
A) hardcore liberals.
B) hardcore conservatives.
C) strong Democrats.
D) strong Republicans.
E) independents.
8) The media have the greatest influence on public opinion about
A) neighborhood crime.
B) childrearing.
C) inflation.
D) domestic policies.
E) events in foreign countries.
9) What is agenda setting?
A) the ability of the media to tell the public what issues the public should be thinking about
B) the tendency to remember only those news stories that are consistent with oneʹs
predispositions
C) the ability of the media to influence the publicʹs opinions on issues
D) the mediaʹs focus on scandal and corruption
E) the publicʹs ability to determine what issues the media covers.
10) Which of the following accurately describes American journalists?
A) They tend to be libertarian.
B) They tend to be socially conservative.
C) They tend to be anti-establishment.
D) They tend to be economically conservative.
E) They are just as likely to be registered Democrats as registered Republicans.
11) The mediaʹs coverage of the Telecommunications Act of 1996 suggests that the media may
have a
A) liberal bias.
B) anti-incumbent bias.
C) corporate bias.
D) Democratic bias.
E) status quo bias.
12) Those who claim that the media has a conservative bias point to
A) FOX News.
B) a corporate mentality that is hesitant to criticize possible sponsors.
C) fiscally conservative corporate interests of companies that own the media.
D) the lack of media skepticism given to the Bush administrationʹs arguments for waging
war in Iraq.
E) All of the above.
13) Which of the following best summarizes ideological bias in the media?
A) The media have a strong liberal bias.
B) The media have a strong conservative bias.
C) The media have a liberal bias on social issues and a conservative bias on economic issues.
D) The media have a conservative bias on social issues and a liberal bias on economic issues.
E) Liberals think the media has a conservative bias and conservatives think the media has a
liberal bias.
Wednesday, November 16, 2011
15.3 Pages 564 to 568
1) What did the Supreme Court decide in New York Times Co. v. U. S.?
A) Journalists can be prosecuted for divulging classified information.
B) The government can not censor the press.
C) The New York Times could not publish the Pentagon Papers because they were classified.
D) The New York Times could not publish the Pentagon Papers because they were stolen.
E) The president has ʺinherent powerʺ to halt the publication of news that may harm the
morale of American soldiers.
2) What innovation did the George W. Bush administration establish regarding media coverage
of the 2003 invasion of Iraq?
A) The media could only report on the military action using pre-stationed remote field
cameras.
B) All media coverage of Iraq would need to be delayed for one week to allow the military
to notify the next of kin.
C) Journalists were permitted to embed themselves with various parts of the military.
D) The Bush administration limited news coverage by requiring reporters to conduct
interviews in Arabic.
E) The Bush administration limited news coverage by refusing to transport journalists into
combat areas.
3) Which of the following is most likely to be delivered in person by an officeholder?
A) a press release
B) a press briefing
C) a press conference
D) talking points
E) bad news
4) Information that is provided to a reporter on deep background
A) can only appear in the second half of a story.
B) can only appear in the part of the article that is continued on a later page.
C) can not be released to the public unless the reporter learns the same information from
another source.
D) can not be released to the public under any circumstances.
E) can be used but can not be attributed to the source in any way.
5) Why was New York Times reporter Judith Miller jailed for eighty-five days?
A) She divulged off the record information.
B) She divulged the source of information she had obtained on background.
C) She refused to reveal her source during the investigation into a leak that exposed a CIA
agent.
D) She leaked secret government information.
E) She embarrassed the White House by uncovering pictures of prisoner abuse at Abu
Ghraib.
6) A 2004 60 Minutes story claimed to provide evidence that George W. Bush had received
preferential treatment in the National Guard. What happened after this story ran?
A) Dan Rather received a Pulitzer Prize for investigative journalism.
B) George W. Bush apologized for ʺbeing derelict in my duties to my country.ʺ
C) Conservative bloggers uncovered problems with story and the producer was fired.
D) The producer of the story was attacked by an overzealous Bush supporter.
E) George W. Bush was dishonorably discharged from the military and required to repay
thousands of dollars in salary that he had collected under false pretenses.
7) Why was Lewis ʺScooterʺ Libby indicted in 2005?
A) for leaking classified information to the press
B) for misleading investigators searching for the source of a leak revealing the identity of a
CIA agent
C) for misleading Congress about stockpiles of Iraqi weapons of mass destruction
D) for hindering prosecution of enemy combatants held at Guantanamo Bay, Cuba
E) for falsely implying that confidential information had been stolen from his office
8) In New York Times v. Sullivan, the Supreme Court
A) made it easier to prove libel.
B) prohibited prior restraint of the press.
C) required public officials to prove actual malice to win a libel suit.
D) determined that the New York Times had printed libelous falsehoods against Lyndon
Johnson.
E) declared that a sitting president can not be sued until after his tenure in office is finished.
9) Which president held the fewest press conferences?
A) Franklin Roosevelt
B) Harry Truman
C) John F Kennedy
D) Ronald Reagan
E) George W. Bush
10) The bulk of the media coverage focuses on
A) the president
B) the speaker of the House
C) the Senate majority leader
D) the Chief Justice of the United States
E) the bureaucracy
A) Journalists can be prosecuted for divulging classified information.
B) The government can not censor the press.
C) The New York Times could not publish the Pentagon Papers because they were classified.
D) The New York Times could not publish the Pentagon Papers because they were stolen.
E) The president has ʺinherent powerʺ to halt the publication of news that may harm the
morale of American soldiers.
2) What innovation did the George W. Bush administration establish regarding media coverage
of the 2003 invasion of Iraq?
A) The media could only report on the military action using pre-stationed remote field
cameras.
B) All media coverage of Iraq would need to be delayed for one week to allow the military
to notify the next of kin.
C) Journalists were permitted to embed themselves with various parts of the military.
D) The Bush administration limited news coverage by requiring reporters to conduct
interviews in Arabic.
E) The Bush administration limited news coverage by refusing to transport journalists into
combat areas.
3) Which of the following is most likely to be delivered in person by an officeholder?
A) a press release
B) a press briefing
C) a press conference
D) talking points
E) bad news
4) Information that is provided to a reporter on deep background
A) can only appear in the second half of a story.
B) can only appear in the part of the article that is continued on a later page.
C) can not be released to the public unless the reporter learns the same information from
another source.
D) can not be released to the public under any circumstances.
E) can be used but can not be attributed to the source in any way.
5) Why was New York Times reporter Judith Miller jailed for eighty-five days?
A) She divulged off the record information.
B) She divulged the source of information she had obtained on background.
C) She refused to reveal her source during the investigation into a leak that exposed a CIA
agent.
D) She leaked secret government information.
E) She embarrassed the White House by uncovering pictures of prisoner abuse at Abu
Ghraib.
6) A 2004 60 Minutes story claimed to provide evidence that George W. Bush had received
preferential treatment in the National Guard. What happened after this story ran?
A) Dan Rather received a Pulitzer Prize for investigative journalism.
B) George W. Bush apologized for ʺbeing derelict in my duties to my country.ʺ
C) Conservative bloggers uncovered problems with story and the producer was fired.
D) The producer of the story was attacked by an overzealous Bush supporter.
E) George W. Bush was dishonorably discharged from the military and required to repay
thousands of dollars in salary that he had collected under false pretenses.
7) Why was Lewis ʺScooterʺ Libby indicted in 2005?
A) for leaking classified information to the press
B) for misleading investigators searching for the source of a leak revealing the identity of a
CIA agent
C) for misleading Congress about stockpiles of Iraqi weapons of mass destruction
D) for hindering prosecution of enemy combatants held at Guantanamo Bay, Cuba
E) for falsely implying that confidential information had been stolen from his office
8) In New York Times v. Sullivan, the Supreme Court
A) made it easier to prove libel.
B) prohibited prior restraint of the press.
C) required public officials to prove actual malice to win a libel suit.
D) determined that the New York Times had printed libelous falsehoods against Lyndon
Johnson.
E) declared that a sitting president can not be sued until after his tenure in office is finished.
9) Which president held the fewest press conferences?
A) Franklin Roosevelt
B) Harry Truman
C) John F Kennedy
D) Ronald Reagan
E) George W. Bush
10) The bulk of the media coverage focuses on
A) the president
B) the speaker of the House
C) the Senate majority leader
D) the Chief Justice of the United States
E) the bureaucracy
Tuesday, November 15, 2011
15.2 Pages 553 to 563
1) People who use the Internet for news tend
A) not to subscribe to newspapers.
B) to disregard traditional media sources.
C) to be highly informed voters who use the Web to update their information.
D) to have blue collar jobs.
E) to be Republicans.
2) Which of the following accurately describes al-Jazeera?
A) It is modeled after CNN.
B) It is uniformly praised throughout the Middle East.
C) It mainly provides entertainment programs.
D) Most of its news is simply government propaganda.
E) All of the above.
3) Which of the following newspapers has the least influence over what stories are covered by
the television news media?
A) the Wall Street Journal
B) USA Today
C) Washington Post
D) New York Times
E) Houston Chronicle
4) Which of the following is a wire service that distributes stories to newspapers around the
world?
A) the New York Times
B) the Christian Science Monitor
C) al-Jazeera
D) the Associated Press
E) the BBC
5) Which of the following trends accurately describes the media in the United States?
A) The number of towns with competing local newspapers has increased.
B) Television networks are increasingly breaking with their parent companies to become
independent.
C) Newspapers are being bought by local governments to ensure that news coverage is
driven by journalist standards instead of corporate profits.
D) Media consolidation has increased in recent years.
E) Americans are consuming more political news than ever before.
6) What is narrowcasting?
A) the tendency of the media to frame political events using well-established stereotypes
B) the tendency for the media to focus on domestic events rather than international events
C) the increasing reliance of the media on political pundits
D) the targeting of media programs at specific segments of the population
E) political coverage that is superficial
7) Republican viewersʹ main source of campaign news is
A) Fox News
B) CNN
C) MSNBC
D) the Daily Show
E) NPR
8) How does narrowcasting further polarize public opinion?
A) Viewers tend to watch news that reinforces their preexisting views.
B) Narrowcasting focuses on government corruption and political misdeeds.
C) Viewers are exposed to a range of information covering divergent views.
D) Narrowcasting encourages voters to reject the status quo and to support change.
E) Narrowcasting has resulted in fewer news outlets and, therefore, less diverse political
coverage.
9) Why are the broadcast media more strictly regulated than the print media?
A) The broadcast media has a long history of political malfeasance.
B) The broadcast media leases public airwaves.
C) The airwaves are an unlimited resource, but there can only be one newspaper in a city.
D) Children are exposed to television but donʹt have access to newspapers.
E) The broadcast media is more dangerous because pictures are more powerful than words.
(10) The equal time rule requires that the electronic media
A) cover both liberal and conservative positions on a given issue.
B) cover both Democratic and Republican positions on a given issue.
C) sell advertising time to all candidates if they sell it to any candidate.
D) include all presidential candidates in any political debates they host.
E) devote the same coverage to domestic and to international events.
A) not to subscribe to newspapers.
B) to disregard traditional media sources.
C) to be highly informed voters who use the Web to update their information.
D) to have blue collar jobs.
E) to be Republicans.
2) Which of the following accurately describes al-Jazeera?
A) It is modeled after CNN.
B) It is uniformly praised throughout the Middle East.
C) It mainly provides entertainment programs.
D) Most of its news is simply government propaganda.
E) All of the above.
3) Which of the following newspapers has the least influence over what stories are covered by
the television news media?
A) the Wall Street Journal
B) USA Today
C) Washington Post
D) New York Times
E) Houston Chronicle
4) Which of the following is a wire service that distributes stories to newspapers around the
world?
A) the New York Times
B) the Christian Science Monitor
C) al-Jazeera
D) the Associated Press
E) the BBC
5) Which of the following trends accurately describes the media in the United States?
A) The number of towns with competing local newspapers has increased.
B) Television networks are increasingly breaking with their parent companies to become
independent.
C) Newspapers are being bought by local governments to ensure that news coverage is
driven by journalist standards instead of corporate profits.
D) Media consolidation has increased in recent years.
E) Americans are consuming more political news than ever before.
6) What is narrowcasting?
A) the tendency of the media to frame political events using well-established stereotypes
B) the tendency for the media to focus on domestic events rather than international events
C) the increasing reliance of the media on political pundits
D) the targeting of media programs at specific segments of the population
E) political coverage that is superficial
7) Republican viewersʹ main source of campaign news is
A) Fox News
B) CNN
C) MSNBC
D) the Daily Show
E) NPR
8) How does narrowcasting further polarize public opinion?
A) Viewers tend to watch news that reinforces their preexisting views.
B) Narrowcasting focuses on government corruption and political misdeeds.
C) Viewers are exposed to a range of information covering divergent views.
D) Narrowcasting encourages voters to reject the status quo and to support change.
E) Narrowcasting has resulted in fewer news outlets and, therefore, less diverse political
coverage.
9) Why are the broadcast media more strictly regulated than the print media?
A) The broadcast media has a long history of political malfeasance.
B) The broadcast media leases public airwaves.
C) The airwaves are an unlimited resource, but there can only be one newspaper in a city.
D) Children are exposed to television but donʹt have access to newspapers.
E) The broadcast media is more dangerous because pictures are more powerful than words.
(10) The equal time rule requires that the electronic media
A) cover both liberal and conservative positions on a given issue.
B) cover both Democratic and Republican positions on a given issue.
C) sell advertising time to all candidates if they sell it to any candidate.
D) include all presidential candidates in any political debates they host.
E) devote the same coverage to domestic and to international events.
Monday, November 14, 2011
15.1 Pages 545 to 553
Class,
Didn't make this reading assignment today. Please read this tonite!
1) Which of the following events did NOT cause a public relations problem for the George W.
Bush administration?
A) Bush landing on the USS Abraham Lincoln under a ʺMission Accomplishedʺ banner
B) images of prisoner abuse at Abu Ghraib
C) pictures from New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina
D) payments to Iraqi reporters to write pro-U.S. stories
E) the pardon of Marc Rich for campaign finance violations
2) Which of the following was true regarding the penny press?
A) Newspapers typically cost about 10 cents.
B) They attempted to attract more readers by being nonpartisan.
C) They focused on serious news and avoided publishing political scandals.
D) They were owned and operated by political parties.
E) They were tools used by political machines to reward their supporters and punish their
detractors.
3) Which of the following was a hallmark of yellow journalism?
A) sensationalized reporting
B) high journalistic standards
C) anti-immigrant editorials
D) long and complex feature stories
E) the partisan press
4) Which of the following places the various journalistic periods in the correct chronological
order?
A) muckraking, yellow journalism, the penny press, the partisan press
B) the partisan press, yellow journalism, the penny press, muckraking
C) yellow journalism, the penny press, muckraking, the partisan press
D) the penny press, muckraking, the partisan press, yellow journalism
E) the partisan press, the penny press, yellow journalism, muckraking
5) A form of newspaper publishing during the early twentieth century concerned with reforming
government and business conduct is called
A) the penny press.
B) yellow journalism.
C) muckraking.
D) partisan journalism.
E) pack journalism.
6) Among the publishers who promoted yellow journalism was
A) William Randolph Hearst.
B) James G. Blaine.
C) Upton Sinclair.
D) William Roper.
E) David Sanger.
7) Which president most effectively used the radio to promote his public policies?
A) Calvin Coolidge
B) Franklin Roosevelt
C) Dwight Eisenhower
D) Lyndon Johnson
E) Richard Nixon
8) Which of the following accurately describes AM talk radio?
A) It is popular among liberals.
B) It is popular among minorities.
C) It has a strong conservative bent.
D) It has become more popular than television for getting political news.
E) It presents in-depth news coverage in a nonideological format.
9) Americans are most likely to get their news from
A) newspapers.
B) television.
C) radio.
D) news magazines.
E) the Internet.
10) When compared to older Americans, young Americans are more likely to get their campaign
news from
A) talk radio and C-SPAN.
B) NPR and MSNBC.
C) the Internet and comedy television.
D) newspapers and newsmagazines.
E) Nightline and 60 Minutes.
Didn't make this reading assignment today. Please read this tonite!
1) Which of the following events did NOT cause a public relations problem for the George W.
Bush administration?
A) Bush landing on the USS Abraham Lincoln under a ʺMission Accomplishedʺ banner
B) images of prisoner abuse at Abu Ghraib
C) pictures from New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina
D) payments to Iraqi reporters to write pro-U.S. stories
E) the pardon of Marc Rich for campaign finance violations
2) Which of the following was true regarding the penny press?
A) Newspapers typically cost about 10 cents.
B) They attempted to attract more readers by being nonpartisan.
C) They focused on serious news and avoided publishing political scandals.
D) They were owned and operated by political parties.
E) They were tools used by political machines to reward their supporters and punish their
detractors.
3) Which of the following was a hallmark of yellow journalism?
A) sensationalized reporting
B) high journalistic standards
C) anti-immigrant editorials
D) long and complex feature stories
E) the partisan press
4) Which of the following places the various journalistic periods in the correct chronological
order?
A) muckraking, yellow journalism, the penny press, the partisan press
B) the partisan press, yellow journalism, the penny press, muckraking
C) yellow journalism, the penny press, muckraking, the partisan press
D) the penny press, muckraking, the partisan press, yellow journalism
E) the partisan press, the penny press, yellow journalism, muckraking
5) A form of newspaper publishing during the early twentieth century concerned with reforming
government and business conduct is called
A) the penny press.
B) yellow journalism.
C) muckraking.
D) partisan journalism.
E) pack journalism.
6) Among the publishers who promoted yellow journalism was
A) William Randolph Hearst.
B) James G. Blaine.
C) Upton Sinclair.
D) William Roper.
E) David Sanger.
7) Which president most effectively used the radio to promote his public policies?
A) Calvin Coolidge
B) Franklin Roosevelt
C) Dwight Eisenhower
D) Lyndon Johnson
E) Richard Nixon
8) Which of the following accurately describes AM talk radio?
A) It is popular among liberals.
B) It is popular among minorities.
C) It has a strong conservative bent.
D) It has become more popular than television for getting political news.
E) It presents in-depth news coverage in a nonideological format.
9) Americans are most likely to get their news from
A) newspapers.
B) television.
C) radio.
D) news magazines.
E) the Internet.
10) When compared to older Americans, young Americans are more likely to get their campaign
news from
A) talk radio and C-SPAN.
B) NPR and MSNBC.
C) the Internet and comedy television.
D) newspapers and newsmagazines.
E) Nightline and 60 Minutes.
Wednesday, November 9, 2011
12.2 True/False Questions
1) The 2004 Democratic and Republican Party platforms were nearly identical.
2) George Washington was the founder of the American political party system.
3) The American two-party system was established by the Constitution.
4) The Era of Good Feelings occurred during James Monroeʹs presidency.
5) By the 1820s, most states used popular elections to select their members of the Electoral
College.
6) Political machines were Republican Party organizations that organized rural voters by offering
many intangible incentives to be loyal to the party.
7) Political machines contributed to high voter turnout.
8) The Progressive movement weakened political parties and ushered in candidate-centered
politics.
9) A secular realignment occurred in the South in the 1990s, with traditionally Republican
Southerners gradually aligning with the Democratic Party.
10) The Republican Party has been very successful in its get-out-the-vote efforts.
11) Europeans are much more likely than Americans to believe that government should help in
providing children with food, clothes, and housing.
12) Party affiliation provides a useful cue for voters when evaluating political events and issues.
13) Very few of the items in the winning partyʹs platform are ever implemented.
14) Winner-take-all systems make it difficult for third parties to win legislative seats.
15) A third party candidate has never been elected to the U.S. Congress.
16) Third parties that are built around a single issue or a charismatic candidate are unlikely to
attain long-term viability.
17) Party chairpersons do a substantial amount of the planning for presidential nominating
conventions.
18) Contemporary national nominating conventions are choreographed to project the best image
to the American people.
19) Think tanks are comprised of intellectuals who study public policies from an academic
perspective and have no interest in influencing political debates or outcomes.
20) Republicans have dominated the world of think tanks.
21) Soft money played a crucial role in the 2006 midterm elections, helping Democrats regain
control of both chambers of Congress for the first time since 1994.
22) Republicans have consistently raised more hard money than Democrats.
23) Democrats trail behind Republicans in most measures of party activity.
24) The Democratic National Committee is chaired by Howard Dean, who has emphasized
grassroots organization and fund-raising.
25) In Congress, party-based voting has increased considerably in recent years.
26) In Congress, both the Democratic Party and the Republican Party have become increasingly
ideologically homogeneous.
27) George W. Bush has dedicated considerable energy to building the Republican Party in the
electorate and in the government.
28) Most federal judicial appointees come from the presidentʹs party.
29) During Bill Clintonʹs presidency, congressional Republicans blocked Clintonʹs judicial
appointees. During George W. Bushʹs presidency, congressional Democrats blocked Bushʹs
judicial appointees.
30) Following the 2006 elections, Republicans held a majority of state legislatures.
31) Restrictive ballot laws, campaign finance rules, and the inertia of a two-party system have
made it difficult for third parties to become viable.
32) Most Americans perceive the middle class to be fairly narrow and restrictive.
33) One reason for the gender gap is the lack of support for the Democratic Party among men.
34) Americans with advanced degrees are more likely to be Democrats than Republicans.
35) Although Hispanics have traditionally supported the Democratic Party, they began voting en
masse for the Republican Party starting with the 2000 presidential election.
36) One reason older voters tend to support the Democratic Party is its traditional support for
Social Security and Medicare.
37) While the party in the electorate has declined in recent years, the party in government and the
party organizations are stronger than ever.
2) George Washington was the founder of the American political party system.
3) The American two-party system was established by the Constitution.
4) The Era of Good Feelings occurred during James Monroeʹs presidency.
5) By the 1820s, most states used popular elections to select their members of the Electoral
College.
6) Political machines were Republican Party organizations that organized rural voters by offering
many intangible incentives to be loyal to the party.
7) Political machines contributed to high voter turnout.
8) The Progressive movement weakened political parties and ushered in candidate-centered
politics.
9) A secular realignment occurred in the South in the 1990s, with traditionally Republican
Southerners gradually aligning with the Democratic Party.
10) The Republican Party has been very successful in its get-out-the-vote efforts.
11) Europeans are much more likely than Americans to believe that government should help in
providing children with food, clothes, and housing.
12) Party affiliation provides a useful cue for voters when evaluating political events and issues.
13) Very few of the items in the winning partyʹs platform are ever implemented.
14) Winner-take-all systems make it difficult for third parties to win legislative seats.
15) A third party candidate has never been elected to the U.S. Congress.
16) Third parties that are built around a single issue or a charismatic candidate are unlikely to
attain long-term viability.
17) Party chairpersons do a substantial amount of the planning for presidential nominating
conventions.
18) Contemporary national nominating conventions are choreographed to project the best image
to the American people.
19) Think tanks are comprised of intellectuals who study public policies from an academic
perspective and have no interest in influencing political debates or outcomes.
20) Republicans have dominated the world of think tanks.
21) Soft money played a crucial role in the 2006 midterm elections, helping Democrats regain
control of both chambers of Congress for the first time since 1994.
22) Republicans have consistently raised more hard money than Democrats.
23) Democrats trail behind Republicans in most measures of party activity.
24) The Democratic National Committee is chaired by Howard Dean, who has emphasized
grassroots organization and fund-raising.
25) In Congress, party-based voting has increased considerably in recent years.
26) In Congress, both the Democratic Party and the Republican Party have become increasingly
ideologically homogeneous.
27) George W. Bush has dedicated considerable energy to building the Republican Party in the
electorate and in the government.
28) Most federal judicial appointees come from the presidentʹs party.
29) During Bill Clintonʹs presidency, congressional Republicans blocked Clintonʹs judicial
appointees. During George W. Bushʹs presidency, congressional Democrats blocked Bushʹs
judicial appointees.
30) Following the 2006 elections, Republicans held a majority of state legislatures.
31) Restrictive ballot laws, campaign finance rules, and the inertia of a two-party system have
made it difficult for third parties to become viable.
32) Most Americans perceive the middle class to be fairly narrow and restrictive.
33) One reason for the gender gap is the lack of support for the Democratic Party among men.
34) Americans with advanced degrees are more likely to be Democrats than Republicans.
35) Although Hispanics have traditionally supported the Democratic Party, they began voting en
masse for the Republican Party starting with the 2000 presidential election.
36) One reason older voters tend to support the Democratic Party is its traditional support for
Social Security and Medicare.
37) While the party in the electorate has declined in recent years, the party in government and the
party organizations are stronger than ever.
Tuesday, November 8, 2011
Sabato 12.4 Pages 441-53
1) Party discipline is enforced through
A) educing congressional salaries.
B) committee appointments.
C) competitive elections.
D) loyalty oaths.
E) soft money donations.
2) Which of the following has contributed to increased congressional party unity?
A) increasing ideological heterogeneity
B) the increasing conservativeness of southern Democrats
C) partisan gerrymandering
D) divided government
E) earmarks
3) Party-oriented presidents have included
A) Eisenhower.
B) Johnson.
C) Nixon.
D) Carter.
E) Reagan.
4) The number of self-declared independents has
A) increased to about 40 percent of the population.
B) increased to about 10 percent of the population.
C) declined by fifty percent in the last decade.
D) declined by twenty-five percent in the last decade.
E) stayed constant since 1990.
5) Which of the following is a ʺred stateʺ?
A) New York
B) Oregon
C) California
D) Massachusetts
E) Alaska
6) Members of which of the following groups are most likely to be Democrats?
A) the working class
B) the wealthy
C) men
D) middle-aged Americans
E) Asians
7) Which of the following best describes the partisanship of Hispanics?
A) The Republican Party has successfully wooed large numbers of Hispanic voters.
B) The number of Democratic Hispanics is about equal to the number of Republican
Hispanics.
C) Hispanics used to be mostly Democrats, but they have recently become mostly
Republicans.
D) Hispanics used to be mostly Republicans, but they have recently become mostly
Democrats.
E) Although George W. Bush has tried to attract Hispanics to the Republican Party,
Hispanic Democrats outnumber Hispanic Republicans by three to one.
8) Which of the following helps explain why middle-aged voters lean towards the Republican
Party?
A) They are anticipating retirement and the need for income security from the government.
B) They are anticipating retirement and the need for medical care from the government.
C) They are at the height of their careers and their earnings potentials.
D) They remember how hard it was to struggle to pay for college.
E) They can relate to todayʹs youth.
9) Todayʹs young voters are most likely to be
A) Republican.
B) Green.
C) Democratic.
D) Libertarian.
E) Communist.
10) Which cohort of young voters was most likely to support the Republican Party?
A) those who grew up with peacenik parents of the 1960s
B) those who grew up in the 1970s
C) those who grew up during Ronald Reaganʹs tenure in office
D) those who grew up in the aftermath of the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks
E) those who grew up during Watergate
A) educing congressional salaries.
B) committee appointments.
C) competitive elections.
D) loyalty oaths.
E) soft money donations.
2) Which of the following has contributed to increased congressional party unity?
A) increasing ideological heterogeneity
B) the increasing conservativeness of southern Democrats
C) partisan gerrymandering
D) divided government
E) earmarks
3) Party-oriented presidents have included
A) Eisenhower.
B) Johnson.
C) Nixon.
D) Carter.
E) Reagan.
4) The number of self-declared independents has
A) increased to about 40 percent of the population.
B) increased to about 10 percent of the population.
C) declined by fifty percent in the last decade.
D) declined by twenty-five percent in the last decade.
E) stayed constant since 1990.
5) Which of the following is a ʺred stateʺ?
A) New York
B) Oregon
C) California
D) Massachusetts
E) Alaska
6) Members of which of the following groups are most likely to be Democrats?
A) the working class
B) the wealthy
C) men
D) middle-aged Americans
E) Asians
7) Which of the following best describes the partisanship of Hispanics?
A) The Republican Party has successfully wooed large numbers of Hispanic voters.
B) The number of Democratic Hispanics is about equal to the number of Republican
Hispanics.
C) Hispanics used to be mostly Democrats, but they have recently become mostly
Republicans.
D) Hispanics used to be mostly Republicans, but they have recently become mostly
Democrats.
E) Although George W. Bush has tried to attract Hispanics to the Republican Party,
Hispanic Democrats outnumber Hispanic Republicans by three to one.
8) Which of the following helps explain why middle-aged voters lean towards the Republican
Party?
A) They are anticipating retirement and the need for income security from the government.
B) They are anticipating retirement and the need for medical care from the government.
C) They are at the height of their careers and their earnings potentials.
D) They remember how hard it was to struggle to pay for college.
E) They can relate to todayʹs youth.
9) Todayʹs young voters are most likely to be
A) Republican.
B) Green.
C) Democratic.
D) Libertarian.
E) Communist.
10) Which cohort of young voters was most likely to support the Republican Party?
A) those who grew up with peacenik parents of the 1960s
B) those who grew up in the 1970s
C) those who grew up during Ronald Reaganʹs tenure in office
D) those who grew up in the aftermath of the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks
E) those who grew up during Watergate
Thursday, November 3, 2011
Sabato 12.3 Pages 434-440
1) Who ran under the Reform Party?
A) Ross Perot
B) Jesse Ventura
C) Pat Buchanan
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
2) What is the most important function of national party chair?
A) to draft the platform
B) to raise money
C) to recruit candidates
D) to organize workshops for party volunteers
E) to distribute patronage
3) Every four years the parties nominate a presidential candidate through a
A) party platform.
B) smoke-filled-room procedure.
C) national convention.
D) conference committee.
E) national nominating committee.
4) The smallest unit of the party organization is
A) the county.
B) the district.
C) the region.
D) the state.
E) the precinct.
5) Organizations created to circumvent the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act that can receive
unlimited campaign donations are called
A) cluster clucks.
B) money grinders.
C) BCRAnaires.
D) dolezzas.
E) 527 groups.
6) Think tanks influence
A) party positions.
B) campaign funding.
C) congressional reformation.
D) social capital.
E) secular realignments.
7) Which of the following think tanks is more scholarly and less partisan?
A) the American Enterprise Institute
B) the Heritage Foundation
C) the Cato Institute
D) the Brookings Institution
E) the Open Society Institute
8) Which of the following was virtually unregulated?
A) soft money
B) hard money
C) campaign contributions to a political party
D) campaign contributions to a candidate
E) campaign contributions to a political action committee
9) Which of the following most accurately describes fundraising in the 2006 midterm elections?
A) Democrats raised nearly $100 million more than Republicans raised.
B) Republicans raised nearly $100 million more than Democrats raised.
C) Democrats and Republicans raised nearly equal amounts of money.
D) Democrats raised about half as much money as Republicans raised.
E) Republicans raised more money than the Democrats because Republicans accepted soft
money while Democrats did not.
10) Howard Dean revolutionized the use of
A) the plum book for rewarding patronage.
B) the Internet for raising campaign money.
C) the ʺMain Streetʺ Internet site.
D) soft money.
E) EMILYʹs List.
A) Ross Perot
B) Jesse Ventura
C) Pat Buchanan
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
2) What is the most important function of national party chair?
A) to draft the platform
B) to raise money
C) to recruit candidates
D) to organize workshops for party volunteers
E) to distribute patronage
3) Every four years the parties nominate a presidential candidate through a
A) party platform.
B) smoke-filled-room procedure.
C) national convention.
D) conference committee.
E) national nominating committee.
4) The smallest unit of the party organization is
A) the county.
B) the district.
C) the region.
D) the state.
E) the precinct.
5) Organizations created to circumvent the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act that can receive
unlimited campaign donations are called
A) cluster clucks.
B) money grinders.
C) BCRAnaires.
D) dolezzas.
E) 527 groups.
6) Think tanks influence
A) party positions.
B) campaign funding.
C) congressional reformation.
D) social capital.
E) secular realignments.
7) Which of the following think tanks is more scholarly and less partisan?
A) the American Enterprise Institute
B) the Heritage Foundation
C) the Cato Institute
D) the Brookings Institution
E) the Open Society Institute
8) Which of the following was virtually unregulated?
A) soft money
B) hard money
C) campaign contributions to a political party
D) campaign contributions to a candidate
E) campaign contributions to a political action committee
9) Which of the following most accurately describes fundraising in the 2006 midterm elections?
A) Democrats raised nearly $100 million more than Republicans raised.
B) Republicans raised nearly $100 million more than Democrats raised.
C) Democrats and Republicans raised nearly equal amounts of money.
D) Democrats raised about half as much money as Republicans raised.
E) Republicans raised more money than the Democrats because Republicans accepted soft
money while Democrats did not.
10) Howard Dean revolutionized the use of
A) the plum book for rewarding patronage.
B) the Internet for raising campaign money.
C) the ʺMain Streetʺ Internet site.
D) soft money.
E) EMILYʹs List.
Tuesday, November 1, 2011
Sabato 12.2 Pages 226-33
1) Who ran a political machine?
A) William Tweed
B) Andrew Jackson
C) John Fre´mont
D) Barry Goldwater
E) Peter Wright
2) In a direct primary system, who selects party candidates?
A) political machines
B) party bosses
C) qualified voters
D) party conventions
E) party leaders
3) Progressives embraced
A) civil service laws.
B) political machines.
C) patronage.
D) strong political parties.
E) party conventions.
4) Civil service laws require
A) compulsory voting.
B) compulsory education through the tenth grade.
C) patronage.
D) appointment based on merit.
E) ticket splitting.
5) The decline in political parties brought about by the Progressive era reforms has led to
A) party machines.
B) candidate-centered politics.
C) party realignment.
D) secular realignment.
E) logrolling.
6) A shifting of party coalition groupings in the electorate that remains in place for several
elections is known as
A) punctuated misalignment.
B) an electoral tsunami.
C) ticket splitting.
D) party realignment.
E) a coalitional government.
7) Which of the following was a critical election?
A) James Polk in 1844
B) Franklin Pierce in 1852
C) Grover Cleveland in 1884
D) Franklin Roosevelt in 1932
E) Dwight Eisenhower in 1952
8) Where can one find proportional representation?
A) in the Senate
B) in the presidency
C) in Europe
D) in the California legislature
E) in the Nebraska legislature
9) Congressional elections use a
A) winner-take-all system.
B) proportional representation system.
C) instant runoff system.
D) party machine system.
E) platform party system.
10) Who ran under the Bull Moose Party?
A) George Wallace
B) Ross Perot
C) Theodore Roosevelt
D) Oliver North
E) Bernie Sanders
A) William Tweed
B) Andrew Jackson
C) John Fre´mont
D) Barry Goldwater
E) Peter Wright
2) In a direct primary system, who selects party candidates?
A) political machines
B) party bosses
C) qualified voters
D) party conventions
E) party leaders
3) Progressives embraced
A) civil service laws.
B) political machines.
C) patronage.
D) strong political parties.
E) party conventions.
4) Civil service laws require
A) compulsory voting.
B) compulsory education through the tenth grade.
C) patronage.
D) appointment based on merit.
E) ticket splitting.
5) The decline in political parties brought about by the Progressive era reforms has led to
A) party machines.
B) candidate-centered politics.
C) party realignment.
D) secular realignment.
E) logrolling.
6) A shifting of party coalition groupings in the electorate that remains in place for several
elections is known as
A) punctuated misalignment.
B) an electoral tsunami.
C) ticket splitting.
D) party realignment.
E) a coalitional government.
7) Which of the following was a critical election?
A) James Polk in 1844
B) Franklin Pierce in 1852
C) Grover Cleveland in 1884
D) Franklin Roosevelt in 1932
E) Dwight Eisenhower in 1952
8) Where can one find proportional representation?
A) in the Senate
B) in the presidency
C) in Europe
D) in the California legislature
E) in the Nebraska legislature
9) Congressional elections use a
A) winner-take-all system.
B) proportional representation system.
C) instant runoff system.
D) party machine system.
E) platform party system.
10) Who ran under the Bull Moose Party?
A) George Wallace
B) Ross Perot
C) Theodore Roosevelt
D) Oliver North
E) Bernie Sanders
Thursday, October 27, 2011
12.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) During their 2004 convention, Democrats argued that
A) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts slashed the deficit.
B) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts benefited the wealthy.
C) Congress should enact a ban on late-term abortions.
D) the federal government should define marriage.
E) All of the above.
2) During their 2004 convention, Republicans highlighted
A) the success of George W. Bushʹs Supreme Court appointees.
B) the shrinking national debt.
C) the success of the war in Iraq.
D) the importance of strong social welfare policies.
E) All of the above.
3) Identify the following position from one of the major partyʹs 2004 platform: ʺ....economic
prosperity is essential to environmental progress. That belief is supported by compelling
historical evidence.ʺ
A) the Democratic position on economic development
B) the Republican position on economic development
C) the Democratic position on the environment
D) the Republican position on the environment
E) The Democratic position on the trade deficit
4) The office holders who organize themselves and pursue policy objectives under a party label
are referred to as the
A) organizational party.
B) campaign party.
C) governmental party.
D) objectives party.
E) political party.
5) What did George Washington say about political parties in his farewell address?
A) ʺDemocracy is unthinkable save in terms of parties.ʺ
B) ʺMy fellow Americans, I must warn you that the party is over.ʺ
C) ʺIt has become increasingly clear to me that the party has just begun! Long live
American political parties.ʺ
D) Washington begged his fellow countrymen to disband the Federalist Party and institute
the Whig Party.
E) Washington warned the nation against parties.
6) Party politics was nearly suspended during the
A) Roaring Twenties.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Progressive Era.
D) Populist Era.
E) 1920s.
7) What does the Constitution say about political parties?
A) ʺElections shall be Mediated by exactly two Political Parties.ʺ
B) ʺCongress shall organize itself by Majority and Minority Party, in accordance with the
Results of the most recent Election.ʺ
C) ʺThe number of Political Parties shall not be limited, but no Party shall gain access to any
Ballot or Ticket without the receipt of five per cent of the Vote in the preceding Election.ʺ
D) ʺAs Democracy is unthinkable save in terms of Parties, the Right of the People to form
and keep Parties shall not be abridged.ʺ
E) The Constitution does not mention political parties.
8) In 1832, who was nominated in the first large national party nominating convention?
A) Henry Clay
B) Andrew Jackson
C) James Monroe
D) James Madison
E) John Adams
9) A party organization that recruits its members with tangible incentives such as jobs and is
characterized by a high degree of control over member activity is called a
A) mob. B) machine. C) patron. D) boss. E) patriarch.
10) 1874 to 1912 represents the
A) Responsible Party System.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Age of Aquarius.
D) Christian Democratic Party Era.
E) Golden Age of parties.
A) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts slashed the deficit.
B) George W. Bushʹs tax cuts benefited the wealthy.
C) Congress should enact a ban on late-term abortions.
D) the federal government should define marriage.
E) All of the above.
2) During their 2004 convention, Republicans highlighted
A) the success of George W. Bushʹs Supreme Court appointees.
B) the shrinking national debt.
C) the success of the war in Iraq.
D) the importance of strong social welfare policies.
E) All of the above.
3) Identify the following position from one of the major partyʹs 2004 platform: ʺ....economic
prosperity is essential to environmental progress. That belief is supported by compelling
historical evidence.ʺ
A) the Democratic position on economic development
B) the Republican position on economic development
C) the Democratic position on the environment
D) the Republican position on the environment
E) The Democratic position on the trade deficit
4) The office holders who organize themselves and pursue policy objectives under a party label
are referred to as the
A) organizational party.
B) campaign party.
C) governmental party.
D) objectives party.
E) political party.
5) What did George Washington say about political parties in his farewell address?
A) ʺDemocracy is unthinkable save in terms of parties.ʺ
B) ʺMy fellow Americans, I must warn you that the party is over.ʺ
C) ʺIt has become increasingly clear to me that the party has just begun! Long live
American political parties.ʺ
D) Washington begged his fellow countrymen to disband the Federalist Party and institute
the Whig Party.
E) Washington warned the nation against parties.
6) Party politics was nearly suspended during the
A) Roaring Twenties.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Progressive Era.
D) Populist Era.
E) 1920s.
7) What does the Constitution say about political parties?
A) ʺElections shall be Mediated by exactly two Political Parties.ʺ
B) ʺCongress shall organize itself by Majority and Minority Party, in accordance with the
Results of the most recent Election.ʺ
C) ʺThe number of Political Parties shall not be limited, but no Party shall gain access to any
Ballot or Ticket without the receipt of five per cent of the Vote in the preceding Election.ʺ
D) ʺAs Democracy is unthinkable save in terms of Parties, the Right of the People to form
and keep Parties shall not be abridged.ʺ
E) The Constitution does not mention political parties.
8) In 1832, who was nominated in the first large national party nominating convention?
A) Henry Clay
B) Andrew Jackson
C) James Monroe
D) James Madison
E) John Adams
9) A party organization that recruits its members with tangible incentives such as jobs and is
characterized by a high degree of control over member activity is called a
A) mob. B) machine. C) patron. D) boss. E) patriarch.
10) 1874 to 1912 represents the
A) Responsible Party System.
B) Era of Good Feelings.
C) Age of Aquarius.
D) Christian Democratic Party Era.
E) Golden Age of parties.
Monday, October 24, 2011
READING GUIDE FOR FEDERALIST #10
1. According to Madison, what conditions have historically plagued “popular governments?”
Instability, injustice, confusion.
2. Had the US effectively dealt with these conditions? Explain.
No. There have been “improvements” in the US, but there are “complaints” from “virtuous citizens” that the government is unstable, that the public good is disregarded, and that measures are decided by an “overbearing majority.”
3. Describe the two methods of removing the causes of factions.
1) Destroying liberty.
2) Giving every citizen the same opinions, passions and interests.
4. Describe Madison’s position on these two methods.
1) Destroying liberty is a remedy that is worse than the disease.
2) Giving every citizen the same opinions, passions and interests is impractical because of the natural diversity of people.
5. What is the most common cause of faction?
The unequal distribution of property, or wealth: property owners v. non-property owners, creditors v. debtors, landed wealth v. manufacturing wealth.
6. Is the “republican principle” more effective in controlling the effects of a minority faction or a majority faction? Explain.
It is more effective in controlling the effects of a minority faction because a simple majority vote will thwart the will of a minority. A majority faction, however, may sacrifice both the public good and the rights of citizens through its sheer voting power.
7. Is a republic or a pure democracy more suitable for controlling the effects of factions? List the differences that Madison cites between these two forms of government.
A republic is more suitable than a pure democracy.
1) A republic delegates the chores of government to a small number of elected citizens.
2) A republic includes a greater number of citizens and a larger geographical area.
8. What are the benefits when there is a “delegation of the government to a small number of citizens?”
Such a body may include citizens of wisdom, patriotism, and love of justice who better understand the true interest of their nation. The danger, however, is that men of “sinister designs” may be elected but then betray the public good.
9. Why is a large republic more likely to control the effects of a faction than a small republic?
The larger the number of citizens, the less likely it is that unworthy candidates can get away with the practice of their “vicious arts.”
A large territory would be more likely to have a large number of interests. With such a large number of interests, it is less likely that one interest could monopolize power.
Instability, injustice, confusion.
2. Had the US effectively dealt with these conditions? Explain.
No. There have been “improvements” in the US, but there are “complaints” from “virtuous citizens” that the government is unstable, that the public good is disregarded, and that measures are decided by an “overbearing majority.”
3. Describe the two methods of removing the causes of factions.
1) Destroying liberty.
2) Giving every citizen the same opinions, passions and interests.
4. Describe Madison’s position on these two methods.
1) Destroying liberty is a remedy that is worse than the disease.
2) Giving every citizen the same opinions, passions and interests is impractical because of the natural diversity of people.
5. What is the most common cause of faction?
The unequal distribution of property, or wealth: property owners v. non-property owners, creditors v. debtors, landed wealth v. manufacturing wealth.
6. Is the “republican principle” more effective in controlling the effects of a minority faction or a majority faction? Explain.
It is more effective in controlling the effects of a minority faction because a simple majority vote will thwart the will of a minority. A majority faction, however, may sacrifice both the public good and the rights of citizens through its sheer voting power.
7. Is a republic or a pure democracy more suitable for controlling the effects of factions? List the differences that Madison cites between these two forms of government.
A republic is more suitable than a pure democracy.
1) A republic delegates the chores of government to a small number of elected citizens.
2) A republic includes a greater number of citizens and a larger geographical area.
8. What are the benefits when there is a “delegation of the government to a small number of citizens?”
Such a body may include citizens of wisdom, patriotism, and love of justice who better understand the true interest of their nation. The danger, however, is that men of “sinister designs” may be elected but then betray the public good.
9. Why is a large republic more likely to control the effects of a faction than a small republic?
The larger the number of citizens, the less likely it is that unworthy candidates can get away with the practice of their “vicious arts.”
A large territory would be more likely to have a large number of interests. With such a large number of interests, it is less likely that one interest could monopolize power.
READING GUIDE FOR FEDERALIST #51
1. What is essential to the “preservation of liberty?” How should this “be so constituted?”
Each department should have a will of its own. Each department should be politically independent of the others, i.e. each should have as little agency as possible in the appointment of the others.
2. Explain the following: “A dependence upon the people is, no doubt, the primary control on the government; but experience has taught mankind the necessity of auxiliary precautions.”
Elections are important to resist tyranny, but they are not enough. Other measures are needed. Madison goes on to describe the roles of separation of powers, checks and balances, and federalism in this regard throughout the balance of this essay.
3. In a republican government, which branch is the strongest? Identify three ways of “remedying this inconveniency.”
The legislature.
1. Dividing Congress.
2. Giving the two houses of Congress two different means of election,
3. Fortifying the executive, e.g. with a veto
4. List two ways in which the federal system of the US “places that system in a very interesting point of view,” i.e. protects against tyranny.
1) In the “compound republic” of the US, power is divided between two distinct levels of government, i.e. state governments and the national government, and then each level in turn subdivides itself; hence a “double security.”
2) The multiplicity of interests within the US will make it unlikely that tyranny will develop. In a small republic, there is a greater chance that a majority faction will develop and oppress the people. In a large republic, there is less chance that this will occur simply because the nation is so vast and because there are so many interests present.
*** Make sure that you know the role of the following “auxiliary precautions” in guarding against tyranny:
• Separation of powers
• Checks and balances
• Federalism
Each department should have a will of its own. Each department should be politically independent of the others, i.e. each should have as little agency as possible in the appointment of the others.
2. Explain the following: “A dependence upon the people is, no doubt, the primary control on the government; but experience has taught mankind the necessity of auxiliary precautions.”
Elections are important to resist tyranny, but they are not enough. Other measures are needed. Madison goes on to describe the roles of separation of powers, checks and balances, and federalism in this regard throughout the balance of this essay.
3. In a republican government, which branch is the strongest? Identify three ways of “remedying this inconveniency.”
The legislature.
1. Dividing Congress.
2. Giving the two houses of Congress two different means of election,
3. Fortifying the executive, e.g. with a veto
4. List two ways in which the federal system of the US “places that system in a very interesting point of view,” i.e. protects against tyranny.
1) In the “compound republic” of the US, power is divided between two distinct levels of government, i.e. state governments and the national government, and then each level in turn subdivides itself; hence a “double security.”
2) The multiplicity of interests within the US will make it unlikely that tyranny will develop. In a small republic, there is a greater chance that a majority faction will develop and oppress the people. In a large republic, there is less chance that this will occur simply because the nation is so vast and because there are so many interests present.
*** Make sure that you know the role of the following “auxiliary precautions” in guarding against tyranny:
• Separation of powers
• Checks and balances
• Federalism
Tuesday, October 18, 2011
Out Sick Today and Tomorrow!!!
Class,
So sorry but I am pretty sick with a bronchial infection that will have me out definitely tomorrow. Hopefully I'll be back on Thursday. You will have the same Sub. Hope that's okay.
You guys will work on your flashcards for the first 15-20 minutes, then you will work on your Pew Study Notes for Unit 3-with a partner if desire. Sorry to be away from you. See you hopefully Thursday!
Mr. B.
So sorry but I am pretty sick with a bronchial infection that will have me out definitely tomorrow. Hopefully I'll be back on Thursday. You will have the same Sub. Hope that's okay.
You guys will work on your flashcards for the first 15-20 minutes, then you will work on your Pew Study Notes for Unit 3-with a partner if desire. Sorry to be away from you. See you hopefully Thursday!
Mr. B.
Thursday, October 13, 2011
Chapter 16.4 Pages 604 to 611
1) In 1995, Congress passed lobbying reform that focuses on
A) disclosure requirements.
B) prohibiting lobbying by former members of Congress.
C) prohibiting lobbying on behalf of issues that are the subjects of pending legislation.
D) limiting the amount of money that can be spent for lobbying.
E) reducing the influence of the Federalist Society.
2) Which of the following is a provision of the Ethics in Government Act?
A) Former members of Congress are prohibited from becoming lobbyists.
B) Former executive branch employees can not become lobbyists on any matter before their
former agency for one year.
C) Federal judges can not accept education junkets from interest groups.
D) Current members of Congress can not lobby other members of Congress.
E) Former members of Congress are prohibited from eating in the Capitol dining rooms if
they have become lobbyists.
3) In recent years, EMILYʹs List has helped to elect
A) Republican women.
B) pro-choice women.
C) Log Cabin Republicans.
D) George W. Bush and other prominent Republicans.
E) members of labor unions.
4) Most interest group members are
A) policy entrepreneurs.
B) patrons.
C) actively involved in group activities.
D) dues-paying members who do not participate in other ways.
E) leaders.
5) Those who join interest groups tend to
A) have higher levels of income and education.
B) be blue-collar workers.
C) be members of a labor union.
D) be deeply involved in the groups activities and meetings.
E) limit their membership to the one group they care most strongly about.
6) What is a collective good?
A) something of value that cannot be withheld from a nonmember
B) something of value that only goes to dues-paying members
C) something that improves society
D) something an interest group might offer its members to avoid the free rider problem
E) something that promotes economic growth
7) The free rider problem is
A) an incentive to join an interest group.
B) a disincentive to join an interest group.
C) the ability of group members to join aligned groups at discounted rates.
D) the tendency for citizens to belong to more than one group.
E) the tendency for group members to pay dues but not otherwise participate in other
group activities.
8) Why does the American Automobile Association offer roadside assistance to its members?
A) because it is required by law to provide roadside assistance
B) because it is a collective good
C) because it is a material benefit that can help overcome the free rider problem
D) because a patron donated a lot of money on the condition that roadside assistance be
given ʺto all stranded motoristsʺ
E) because interest groups are prohibited from giving donations to political campaigns
9) George Soros is a
A) patron to progressive organizations.
B) patron to libertarian organizations.
C) patron to conservative organizations.
D) rank-and-file member of MoveOn.org.
E) rank-and-file member of the Christian Coalition.
10) Some people argue that government should not impose regulations on interest group activities
because
A) there is an upper-class bias in interest group activity.
B) doing so may stifle political speech.
C) the First Amendment applies to individuals and not to groups.
D) citizens have the right to know how and in what capacity an interest group is acting.
E) the government needs to ensure that different groups have an equal ability to influence
government.
A) disclosure requirements.
B) prohibiting lobbying by former members of Congress.
C) prohibiting lobbying on behalf of issues that are the subjects of pending legislation.
D) limiting the amount of money that can be spent for lobbying.
E) reducing the influence of the Federalist Society.
2) Which of the following is a provision of the Ethics in Government Act?
A) Former members of Congress are prohibited from becoming lobbyists.
B) Former executive branch employees can not become lobbyists on any matter before their
former agency for one year.
C) Federal judges can not accept education junkets from interest groups.
D) Current members of Congress can not lobby other members of Congress.
E) Former members of Congress are prohibited from eating in the Capitol dining rooms if
they have become lobbyists.
3) In recent years, EMILYʹs List has helped to elect
A) Republican women.
B) pro-choice women.
C) Log Cabin Republicans.
D) George W. Bush and other prominent Republicans.
E) members of labor unions.
4) Most interest group members are
A) policy entrepreneurs.
B) patrons.
C) actively involved in group activities.
D) dues-paying members who do not participate in other ways.
E) leaders.
5) Those who join interest groups tend to
A) have higher levels of income and education.
B) be blue-collar workers.
C) be members of a labor union.
D) be deeply involved in the groups activities and meetings.
E) limit their membership to the one group they care most strongly about.
6) What is a collective good?
A) something of value that cannot be withheld from a nonmember
B) something of value that only goes to dues-paying members
C) something that improves society
D) something an interest group might offer its members to avoid the free rider problem
E) something that promotes economic growth
7) The free rider problem is
A) an incentive to join an interest group.
B) a disincentive to join an interest group.
C) the ability of group members to join aligned groups at discounted rates.
D) the tendency for citizens to belong to more than one group.
E) the tendency for group members to pay dues but not otherwise participate in other
group activities.
8) Why does the American Automobile Association offer roadside assistance to its members?
A) because it is required by law to provide roadside assistance
B) because it is a collective good
C) because it is a material benefit that can help overcome the free rider problem
D) because a patron donated a lot of money on the condition that roadside assistance be
given ʺto all stranded motoristsʺ
E) because interest groups are prohibited from giving donations to political campaigns
9) George Soros is a
A) patron to progressive organizations.
B) patron to libertarian organizations.
C) patron to conservative organizations.
D) rank-and-file member of MoveOn.org.
E) rank-and-file member of the Christian Coalition.
10) Some people argue that government should not impose regulations on interest group activities
because
A) there is an upper-class bias in interest group activity.
B) doing so may stifle political speech.
C) the First Amendment applies to individuals and not to groups.
D) citizens have the right to know how and in what capacity an interest group is acting.
E) the government needs to ensure that different groups have an equal ability to influence
government.
Wednesday, October 12, 2011
Chapter 16.3 Pages 594 to 602
1) The percentage of the work force in labor unions was highest in
A) 1900 B) 1924 C) 1950 D) 1986 E) 2005
2) The activities of a group or organization that seeks to influence legislation and persuade
political leaders to support a groupʹs positions is called
A) realpolitik.
B) patronage.
C) lobbying.
D) gentrification.
E) ʺpolitics by other means.ʺ
3) Interest groups tend to focus most of their efforts on
A) getting out the vote.
B) rating candidates or officeholders and creating voter guides.
C) endorsing candidates.
D) lobbying.
E) direct mail solicitations.
4) Which of the following lobbying techniques are interest groups most likely to engage in?
A) running advertisements
B) endorsing candidates
C) contacting government officials
D) engaging in protests
E) doing favors for officials who need assistance
5) President George W. Bushʹs Presidentʹs Emergency Plan for AIDS Relief (PEPFAR) emphasizes
A) condom use.
B) vaccinations.
C) abstinence.
D) circumcision.
E) whatever tools AIDS prevention groups determine are most effective.
6) Many of the most effective lobbyists are
A) former members of Congress.
B) purveyors of false or misleading information.
C) current White House or Cabinet officers.
D) socially awkward.
E) uninformed about the issues for which they lobby.
7) Lobbyists tend to concentrate their efforts on
A) the judicial branch.
B) the president.
C) representatives who share their policy preferences.
D) representatives who do not share their policy preferences and therefore need to be
persuaded.
E) members of the House of Representatives who are not up for reelection for at least four
years.
8) Interest groups lobby the federal courts through
A) direct payments to judges and justices in exchange for favorable decisions.
B) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ pensions.
C) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ reelection committee.
D) sponsoring lawsuits and filing briefs.
E) All of the above.
9) Why did Antonin Scalia miss the swearing in of Chief Justice John Roberts?
A) Scalia was protesting Robertsʹ moderate policy preferences.
B) Scalia boycotted the event in protest for being passed over the Chief Justice nomination.
C) Scalia was in Colorado golfing and attending a legal conference paid for by the Federalist
Society.
D) One member of the Supreme Court must miss the swearing-in ceremony in case there is
a tragedy that takes the lives of the other justices.
E) Scalia was busy lobbying members of Congress to pass the ban on late-term abortions.
10) What is grassroots lobbying?
A) interest group activity aimed at getting citizens to contact their representatives
B) lobbying efforts aimed at those who can influence public officials, such as the major
contributors to their campaigns
C) lobbying efforts aimed at increasing agricultural subsidies
D) attempting to influence public policies by providing expensive gifts or junkets to
members of Congress
E) lobbying efforts aimed at maintaining the status quo
A) 1900 B) 1924 C) 1950 D) 1986 E) 2005
2) The activities of a group or organization that seeks to influence legislation and persuade
political leaders to support a groupʹs positions is called
A) realpolitik.
B) patronage.
C) lobbying.
D) gentrification.
E) ʺpolitics by other means.ʺ
3) Interest groups tend to focus most of their efforts on
A) getting out the vote.
B) rating candidates or officeholders and creating voter guides.
C) endorsing candidates.
D) lobbying.
E) direct mail solicitations.
4) Which of the following lobbying techniques are interest groups most likely to engage in?
A) running advertisements
B) endorsing candidates
C) contacting government officials
D) engaging in protests
E) doing favors for officials who need assistance
5) President George W. Bushʹs Presidentʹs Emergency Plan for AIDS Relief (PEPFAR) emphasizes
A) condom use.
B) vaccinations.
C) abstinence.
D) circumcision.
E) whatever tools AIDS prevention groups determine are most effective.
6) Many of the most effective lobbyists are
A) former members of Congress.
B) purveyors of false or misleading information.
C) current White House or Cabinet officers.
D) socially awkward.
E) uninformed about the issues for which they lobby.
7) Lobbyists tend to concentrate their efforts on
A) the judicial branch.
B) the president.
C) representatives who share their policy preferences.
D) representatives who do not share their policy preferences and therefore need to be
persuaded.
E) members of the House of Representatives who are not up for reelection for at least four
years.
8) Interest groups lobby the federal courts through
A) direct payments to judges and justices in exchange for favorable decisions.
B) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ pensions.
C) contributions to judgesʹ and justicesʹ reelection committee.
D) sponsoring lawsuits and filing briefs.
E) All of the above.
9) Why did Antonin Scalia miss the swearing in of Chief Justice John Roberts?
A) Scalia was protesting Robertsʹ moderate policy preferences.
B) Scalia boycotted the event in protest for being passed over the Chief Justice nomination.
C) Scalia was in Colorado golfing and attending a legal conference paid for by the Federalist
Society.
D) One member of the Supreme Court must miss the swearing-in ceremony in case there is
a tragedy that takes the lives of the other justices.
E) Scalia was busy lobbying members of Congress to pass the ban on late-term abortions.
10) What is grassroots lobbying?
A) interest group activity aimed at getting citizens to contact their representatives
B) lobbying efforts aimed at those who can influence public officials, such as the major
contributors to their campaigns
C) lobbying efforts aimed at increasing agricultural subsidies
D) attempting to influence public policies by providing expensive gifts or junkets to
members of Congress
E) lobbying efforts aimed at maintaining the status quo
Tuesday, October 11, 2011
Chapter 16.2 Pages 585 to 592
1) Which of the following is a single-issue group?
A) MoveOn.org
B) AARP
C) U.S. Chamber of Commerce
D) National Rifle Association
E) NAACP
2) The right of citizens to form groups and to petition the government for changes in public
policies is protected by
A) the First Amendment.
B) the interest group clause.
C) the supremacy clause.
D) the interstate commerce clause.
E) the takings clause.
3) What did the Clayton Act do?
A) It allowed labor unions to form and guaranteed their right to strike.
B) It established open shop laws.
C) It granted vast swaths of land to the Central Pacific Railroad.
D) It allowed Standard Oil to drill on publicly owned land in Pennsylvania.
E) It required interest groups to share their membership lists with the government.
4) All of the following groups formed or reenergized during the 1960s or the 1970s EXCEPT
A) the American Civil Liberties Union.
B) the NAACP.
C) the Mexican American Legal Defense and Education Fund.
D) Common Cause.
E) the Christian Coalition.
5) During the 1960s and 1970s, what kinds of interest groups were most successful?
A) public interest and civil rights groups
B) conservative and Republican interest groups
C) religious and social conservative interest groups
D) gay and lesbian interest groups
E) faith-based and community imitative groups
6) Which new interest group helped elect Ronald Reagan?
A) Focus on the Family
B) the Moral Majority
C) Unsafe at Any Speed
D) Onward Christian Soldiers
E) Public Citizen, Inc.
7) Which of the following interest groups was the most instrumental in electing Republican
members of Congress in 1994 and in electing George W. Bush?
A) the National Electric Light Association
B) the 700 Club
C) the Christian Coalition
D) Common Cause
E) the National Association of Manufacturers
8) Who founded the Christian Coalition?
A) Ted Haggard
B) Jerry Falwell
C) Pat Robertson
D) James Dobson
E) Jimmy Swaggart
9) What is a voter guide?
A) instructions on how to use voting technology distributed by local election boards
B) summaries of candidatesʹ issue positions distributed by interest groups
C) lists of candidates officially endorsed by interest groups
D) descriptions of the job experiences of candidates distributed by public interest groups
E) calendars distributed by interest groups that contain the dates of upcoming elections
10) Which interest group has been successful under the George W. Bush administration and has
been described as ʺa fraternity of powerful and prestigious business leaders that tells
ʹbusinessʹs side of the storyʹ to legislators, bureaucrats, White House personnel, and other
interested public officials.ʺ
A) A Rising Tide Lifts All Boats
B) the Council for Economic Growth
C) the National Association of Manufacturers
D) the Chamber of Commerce
E) the Business Roundtable
A) MoveOn.org
B) AARP
C) U.S. Chamber of Commerce
D) National Rifle Association
E) NAACP
2) The right of citizens to form groups and to petition the government for changes in public
policies is protected by
A) the First Amendment.
B) the interest group clause.
C) the supremacy clause.
D) the interstate commerce clause.
E) the takings clause.
3) What did the Clayton Act do?
A) It allowed labor unions to form and guaranteed their right to strike.
B) It established open shop laws.
C) It granted vast swaths of land to the Central Pacific Railroad.
D) It allowed Standard Oil to drill on publicly owned land in Pennsylvania.
E) It required interest groups to share their membership lists with the government.
4) All of the following groups formed or reenergized during the 1960s or the 1970s EXCEPT
A) the American Civil Liberties Union.
B) the NAACP.
C) the Mexican American Legal Defense and Education Fund.
D) Common Cause.
E) the Christian Coalition.
5) During the 1960s and 1970s, what kinds of interest groups were most successful?
A) public interest and civil rights groups
B) conservative and Republican interest groups
C) religious and social conservative interest groups
D) gay and lesbian interest groups
E) faith-based and community imitative groups
6) Which new interest group helped elect Ronald Reagan?
A) Focus on the Family
B) the Moral Majority
C) Unsafe at Any Speed
D) Onward Christian Soldiers
E) Public Citizen, Inc.
7) Which of the following interest groups was the most instrumental in electing Republican
members of Congress in 1994 and in electing George W. Bush?
A) the National Electric Light Association
B) the 700 Club
C) the Christian Coalition
D) Common Cause
E) the National Association of Manufacturers
8) Who founded the Christian Coalition?
A) Ted Haggard
B) Jerry Falwell
C) Pat Robertson
D) James Dobson
E) Jimmy Swaggart
9) What is a voter guide?
A) instructions on how to use voting technology distributed by local election boards
B) summaries of candidatesʹ issue positions distributed by interest groups
C) lists of candidates officially endorsed by interest groups
D) descriptions of the job experiences of candidates distributed by public interest groups
E) calendars distributed by interest groups that contain the dates of upcoming elections
10) Which interest group has been successful under the George W. Bush administration and has
been described as ʺa fraternity of powerful and prestigious business leaders that tells
ʹbusinessʹs side of the storyʹ to legislators, bureaucrats, White House personnel, and other
interested public officials.ʺ
A) A Rising Tide Lifts All Boats
B) the Council for Economic Growth
C) the National Association of Manufacturers
D) the Chamber of Commerce
E) the Business Roundtable
Monday, October 10, 2011
2003 Federalism FRQ-Model Student Response
The federal and state governments in American rely on more than just the governor or the president to perform their executive duties. Millions of employees work in America to perform the duties of government has to fulfill. From the public school teacher to the state psychiatrist from the prison guard to the FBI agent men and women are placed under the government budget.
Since 1945, two trends have appeared. The first is that the number of state and local employees has increased steadily at a rate of approximately half a million a year. The second is that the number of federal government employees has not increased, but instead remained rather constant. If anything, the number of federal employees has decreased. Though it is true under the Clinton administration the trend in state and local employee numbers was reversed, the state and local employees are still much more numerous now than they were 55 years ago. Since 1945, state and local and federal employees were approximately equal in number. What this trend means is that state and local employees now outnumber federal employees at a rate approximately equal to three to one.
This intense increase in state and local employees has occurred because the federal government in this period began imposing more federal mandates. These are things that the federal government requires the state or local governments to do without giving them funds with which to do it. This meant more state and local employees had to be hired to perform the service necessary to fulfill the mandate. Block grants also increased during this period. These are grants given to the state governments by the federal government with few strings attached. With this money the state could also hire more employees.
The trends in the employment in our government exist not because our federal government is not doing anything, but instead because it is delegating responsibilities to the lower governments. The government now has more things it does than ever before and it is because of this one sees such as rise in state employees.
Since 1945, two trends have appeared. The first is that the number of state and local employees has increased steadily at a rate of approximately half a million a year. The second is that the number of federal government employees has not increased, but instead remained rather constant. If anything, the number of federal employees has decreased. Though it is true under the Clinton administration the trend in state and local employee numbers was reversed, the state and local employees are still much more numerous now than they were 55 years ago. Since 1945, state and local and federal employees were approximately equal in number. What this trend means is that state and local employees now outnumber federal employees at a rate approximately equal to three to one.
This intense increase in state and local employees has occurred because the federal government in this period began imposing more federal mandates. These are things that the federal government requires the state or local governments to do without giving them funds with which to do it. This meant more state and local employees had to be hired to perform the service necessary to fulfill the mandate. Block grants also increased during this period. These are grants given to the state governments by the federal government with few strings attached. With this money the state could also hire more employees.
The trends in the employment in our government exist not because our federal government is not doing anything, but instead because it is delegating responsibilities to the lower governments. The government now has more things it does than ever before and it is because of this one sees such as rise in state employees.
Chapter 16.1 Pages 582 to 585
1) Who was the D.C. lobbyist who pled guiltily to conspiracy, fraud, and tax evasion in 2006?
A) Tom DeLay
B) Robert Ney
C) Conrad Burns
D) Jack Abramoff
E) Robert Putnam
2) After paying for a lobbyist, Treasure Island, Florida received a $50 million appropriation in the
federal budget. This is called
A) casework.
B) logrolling.
C) constituency service.
D) an earmark.
E) a frank.
3) Involvement in community groups and activities
A) enhances social capital.
B) fosters self-reliance.
C) hinders resolution of collective action problems.
D) enhances the Protestant work ethic.
E) hinders economic and political development.
4) To which of the following groups are contemporary citizens most likely to belong?
A) bowling leagues
B) Elks Club
C) League of Women Voters
D) Lions Club
E) community associations
5) According to disturbance theory, why do interest groups form?
A) to serve the public good
B) to promote the well being of civil servants
C) to counteract the effects of other groups
D) to bother government
E) to bolster the economy
6) What kind of interest group focuses its attention on achieving collective goods?
A) public interest groups
B) economic interest groups
C) trade association groups
D) governmental units
E) political action committees
7) Common Cause, peace groups, environmental organizations, and other such groups are
examples of ________ interest groups.
A) social capital
B) civic virtue
C) public
D) economic
E) libertarian
8) A labor union is an example of a
A) public interest group.
B) economic interest group.
C) trade association group.
D) governmental unit.
E) political action committee.
9) Governmental units typically lobby for
A) political action committees.
B) trade associations.
C) foreign aid.
D) PETA.
E) earmarks.
10) Corporations can contribute money to political campaigns by forming
A) EIDs.
B) PACs.
C) 528 groups.
D) subsidiaries.
E) caucuses.
A) Tom DeLay
B) Robert Ney
C) Conrad Burns
D) Jack Abramoff
E) Robert Putnam
2) After paying for a lobbyist, Treasure Island, Florida received a $50 million appropriation in the
federal budget. This is called
A) casework.
B) logrolling.
C) constituency service.
D) an earmark.
E) a frank.
3) Involvement in community groups and activities
A) enhances social capital.
B) fosters self-reliance.
C) hinders resolution of collective action problems.
D) enhances the Protestant work ethic.
E) hinders economic and political development.
4) To which of the following groups are contemporary citizens most likely to belong?
A) bowling leagues
B) Elks Club
C) League of Women Voters
D) Lions Club
E) community associations
5) According to disturbance theory, why do interest groups form?
A) to serve the public good
B) to promote the well being of civil servants
C) to counteract the effects of other groups
D) to bother government
E) to bolster the economy
6) What kind of interest group focuses its attention on achieving collective goods?
A) public interest groups
B) economic interest groups
C) trade association groups
D) governmental units
E) political action committees
7) Common Cause, peace groups, environmental organizations, and other such groups are
examples of ________ interest groups.
A) social capital
B) civic virtue
C) public
D) economic
E) libertarian
8) A labor union is an example of a
A) public interest group.
B) economic interest group.
C) trade association group.
D) governmental unit.
E) political action committee.
9) Governmental units typically lobby for
A) political action committees.
B) trade associations.
C) foreign aid.
D) PETA.
E) earmarks.
10) Corporations can contribute money to political campaigns by forming
A) EIDs.
B) PACs.
C) 528 groups.
D) subsidiaries.
E) caucuses.
Wednesday, October 5, 2011
2007 FRQ on Federalism
The framers of the United States Constitution created a federal system.
(a) Define federalism.
(b) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states.
• Categorical grants
• Federal mandates
• Selective incorporation
(c) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the states relative to the federal government.
• Welfare Reform Act of 1996
• Block grants
• Tenth Amendment
2007 FRQ on Federalism
A1. Federalism is defined as the Constitutional division between national and state government in the United States. Each level of government is protected by its own constitution.
B1. Categorical grants have been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states. This is accomplished by the federal government providing grants to states for specific purposes often in exchange for “strings attached.” Often federal categorical grants for highway funds have included provisions such as states adapting a universal standard for their drivers being legally drunk (.08). If states refuse to comply with an order, then the federal funding can be revoked.
B2. Federal mandates have been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states. Unfunded mandates are laws that the federal government establishes for the country that are not subsidized. The Americans with Disabilities Act is an unfunded federal mandate for which all states must be in compliance. States must follow the law (by providing accommodations for disabled persons) or risk legal action. The federal government when passing the law did not provide any money for states to make the necessary legal adoptions.
C1. Block grants have been used to increase the power of the state government relative to the federal government. Block grants were a part of the “devolution revolution” that Republicans hoped to accomplish in the early 1980’s. Block grants are chunks of money given to states by the federal government with few or no strings attached. The states are given wide discretion on how they can use the money.
C2. The Tenth Amendment has been used to increase the power of the state government relative to the federal government. This amendment states that all powers not provided in the Constitution for the national government are “reserved” for the states respectively. The Tenth Amendment has been invoked as a States’ Rights constitutional protection. Many innovations created at the state level are protected under the Tenth Amendment. Gambling in Nevada is an example. Nevada created this revenue raising innovation that other states have adopted.
(a) Define federalism.
(b) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states.
• Categorical grants
• Federal mandates
• Selective incorporation
(c) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the states relative to the federal government.
• Welfare Reform Act of 1996
• Block grants
• Tenth Amendment
2007 FRQ on Federalism
A1. Federalism is defined as the Constitutional division between national and state government in the United States. Each level of government is protected by its own constitution.
B1. Categorical grants have been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states. This is accomplished by the federal government providing grants to states for specific purposes often in exchange for “strings attached.” Often federal categorical grants for highway funds have included provisions such as states adapting a universal standard for their drivers being legally drunk (.08). If states refuse to comply with an order, then the federal funding can be revoked.
B2. Federal mandates have been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states. Unfunded mandates are laws that the federal government establishes for the country that are not subsidized. The Americans with Disabilities Act is an unfunded federal mandate for which all states must be in compliance. States must follow the law (by providing accommodations for disabled persons) or risk legal action. The federal government when passing the law did not provide any money for states to make the necessary legal adoptions.
C1. Block grants have been used to increase the power of the state government relative to the federal government. Block grants were a part of the “devolution revolution” that Republicans hoped to accomplish in the early 1980’s. Block grants are chunks of money given to states by the federal government with few or no strings attached. The states are given wide discretion on how they can use the money.
C2. The Tenth Amendment has been used to increase the power of the state government relative to the federal government. This amendment states that all powers not provided in the Constitution for the national government are “reserved” for the states respectively. The Tenth Amendment has been invoked as a States’ Rights constitutional protection. Many innovations created at the state level are protected under the Tenth Amendment. Gambling in Nevada is an example. Nevada created this revenue raising innovation that other states have adopted.
Monday, October 3, 2011
Sunday, October 2, 2011
This Upcoming Week
Class,
By all indications, we will be having our Unit 2 exam this Friday. Additionally, you will have Constitutional Underpinning vocab quizzes on Tuesday and Wednesday in lieu of Sabato. Now is probably a good time to review your flashcards. The assignment packet which was on the board on Friday will also be coming due by this Thursday. So, before quarter grades, there will be quite a few entries that may have an impact on your current grade...
By all indications, we will be having our Unit 2 exam this Friday. Additionally, you will have Constitutional Underpinning vocab quizzes on Tuesday and Wednesday in lieu of Sabato. Now is probably a good time to review your flashcards. The assignment packet which was on the board on Friday will also be coming due by this Thursday. So, before quarter grades, there will be quite a few entries that may have an impact on your current grade...
Friday, September 30, 2011
Weekend Homework
2007 FRQ on Federalism
The framers of the United States Constitution created a federal system.
(a) Define federalism.
(b) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states.
• Categorical grants
• Federal mandates
• Selective incorporation
(c) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the states relative to the federal government.
• Welfare Reform Act of 1996
• Block grants
• Tenth Amendment
The framers of the United States Constitution created a federal system.
(a) Define federalism.
(b) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the federal government relative to the states.
• Categorical grants
• Federal mandates
• Selective incorporation
(c) Select two of the following and explain how each has been used to increase the power of the states relative to the federal government.
• Welfare Reform Act of 1996
• Block grants
• Tenth Amendment
Wednesday, September 28, 2011
3.3 pages 105 to 108
1) The McCulloch v. Maryland (1816) decision continues to be important today because
A) it established the sovereignty of state governments.
B) it enabled Congress to use the necessary and proper clause to widen its policymaking
scope.
C) the national bank continues to be the foundation of the American dollar.
D) Maryland continues to enjoy immunity from federal laws that regulate banking in every
other state.
E) it established the precedent of stare decisis.
2) What is the significance of the Courtʹs decision in Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Maryland could not create a national bank.
B) Congress must provide ʺdue compensationʺ when it exercises its power of eminent
domain.
C) The president has broad foreign policy powers beyond those explicitly granted in the
Constitution.
D) Congress has broad authority under the commerce clause.
E) The full faith and credit clause does not apply to unmarried couples.
3) The doctrine, applied by the Taney Court, that the national government should not exceed its
enumerated powers is called
A) the full faith and credit doctrine.
B) the doctrine of implied powers.
C) confederation.
D) dual federalism.
E) the emancipation doctrine.
4) In Dred Scott v. Sandford the Supreme Court ruled
A) in favor of Dred Scott.
B) the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional.
C) that slavery could not extend into the territories.
D) for a broad interpretation of the takings clause.
E) that slavery was an immoral ʺstain upon the Union.ʺ
5) In which 1857 decision did the Supreme Court rule that slaves were not citizens, but property?
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Plessy v. Ferguson
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) Dred Scott v. Sandford
E) Gonzales v. Raich
6) The Supreme Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) that
A) separate but equal was inherently unconstitutional.
B) the states had very limited police powers under the Tenth Amendment.
C) racial segregation was constitutional.
D) states could not protect the general welfare of their citizens.
E) all persons born or naturalized in the United States are citizens of the United States.
7) What was the impact of the Sixteenth Amendment on federalism?
A) It increased the power of the state governments by granting them sovereign immunity.
B) It codified the doctrine of dual federalism.
C) It codified the doctrine of concurrent powers.
D) It enhanced statesʹ rights.
E) It enabled the federal government to expand its power by giving it more money to
spend.
8) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) required that U.S. Senators be elected directly by the people.
B) punished the South for the Civil War.
C) enhanced the power of the states.
D) was an unsuccessful attempt to guarantee former slaves the right to vote.
E) successfully guaranteed former slaves the right to vote.
9) The era of dual federalism ended with the
A) Civil War.
B) Great Depression.
C) Sherman Anti-Trust Act.
D) passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) doctrine of implied powers.
10) How did Presidents Calvin Coolidge and Herbert Hoover react to the worsening economic
situations of the 1920s?
A) They launched the New Deal.
B) They created the Works Progress Administration.
C) They abandoned the doctrine of nullification and established the Federal Reserve Board.
D) They did very little, believing it was the responsibility of state governments.
E) They established the Social Security Administration to serve the needs of the elderly and
the impoverished.
A) it established the sovereignty of state governments.
B) it enabled Congress to use the necessary and proper clause to widen its policymaking
scope.
C) the national bank continues to be the foundation of the American dollar.
D) Maryland continues to enjoy immunity from federal laws that regulate banking in every
other state.
E) it established the precedent of stare decisis.
2) What is the significance of the Courtʹs decision in Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Maryland could not create a national bank.
B) Congress must provide ʺdue compensationʺ when it exercises its power of eminent
domain.
C) The president has broad foreign policy powers beyond those explicitly granted in the
Constitution.
D) Congress has broad authority under the commerce clause.
E) The full faith and credit clause does not apply to unmarried couples.
3) The doctrine, applied by the Taney Court, that the national government should not exceed its
enumerated powers is called
A) the full faith and credit doctrine.
B) the doctrine of implied powers.
C) confederation.
D) dual federalism.
E) the emancipation doctrine.
4) In Dred Scott v. Sandford the Supreme Court ruled
A) in favor of Dred Scott.
B) the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional.
C) that slavery could not extend into the territories.
D) for a broad interpretation of the takings clause.
E) that slavery was an immoral ʺstain upon the Union.ʺ
5) In which 1857 decision did the Supreme Court rule that slaves were not citizens, but property?
A) McCulloch v. Maryland
B) Plessy v. Ferguson
C) Gibbons v. Ogden
D) Dred Scott v. Sandford
E) Gonzales v. Raich
6) The Supreme Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) that
A) separate but equal was inherently unconstitutional.
B) the states had very limited police powers under the Tenth Amendment.
C) racial segregation was constitutional.
D) states could not protect the general welfare of their citizens.
E) all persons born or naturalized in the United States are citizens of the United States.
7) What was the impact of the Sixteenth Amendment on federalism?
A) It increased the power of the state governments by granting them sovereign immunity.
B) It codified the doctrine of dual federalism.
C) It codified the doctrine of concurrent powers.
D) It enhanced statesʹ rights.
E) It enabled the federal government to expand its power by giving it more money to
spend.
8) The Seventeenth Amendment
A) required that U.S. Senators be elected directly by the people.
B) punished the South for the Civil War.
C) enhanced the power of the states.
D) was an unsuccessful attempt to guarantee former slaves the right to vote.
E) successfully guaranteed former slaves the right to vote.
9) The era of dual federalism ended with the
A) Civil War.
B) Great Depression.
C) Sherman Anti-Trust Act.
D) passage of the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) doctrine of implied powers.
10) How did Presidents Calvin Coolidge and Herbert Hoover react to the worsening economic
situations of the 1920s?
A) They launched the New Deal.
B) They created the Works Progress Administration.
C) They abandoned the doctrine of nullification and established the Federal Reserve Board.
D) They did very little, believing it was the responsibility of state governments.
E) They established the Social Security Administration to serve the needs of the elderly and
the impoverished.
Tuesday, September 27, 2011
3.2 Pages 101-105
1) What are the police powers?
A) those powers granted to Congress by the Constitution
B) those powers granted to the president by the Constitution
C) those powers which are ʺnecessary and properʺ for carrying out the enumerated powers
D) those powers reserved to the states by the Tenth Amendment
E) those powers protected by the supremacy clause
2) only the state governments
B) only the national government
C) only Congress
D) only the president
E) both the state governments and the national government
3) Under the Constitution, governments are prohibited from passing
A) economic regulations.
B) writs of habeas corpus.
C) ex post facto laws.
D) revenue measures.
E) block grants.
4) Why was the Tenth Amendment added to the Constitution?
A) concern among Anti-Federalists that the national government would claim powers
otherwise belonging to the states
B) to ensure that a state could not sue the national government without its permission
C) because the Constitution failed to list powers belonging to the national government
D) in order to minimize the economic hardships of the Founders
E) because Chief Justice John Marshall refused to hear cases involving constitutional issues,
noting that the Constitution does not explicitly grant to power of judicial review to the
judiciary
5) A law declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial is called a(n)
A) bill of attainder.
B) writ of mandamus.
C) ex post facto law.
D) habeas corpus act.
E) ex officio law.
6) The clause that ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding
and enforceable in another is called the ________ clause.
A) privileges and immunities
B) full faith and credit
C) extraordinary rendition
D) bill of attainder
E) supremacy
7) How are local governments established?
A) by an act of Congress
B) by submitting an interstate compact to the attorney general
C) by state governments
D) by application to the United States Court of Federal Claims
E) by executive orders issued by the president
8) In the early 1800s, who was the Chief Justice who oversaw important federalism decisions,
including Marbury v. Madison and Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Robert Bork
B) Oliver Ellsworth
C) Brushrod Washington
D) John Marshall
E) Oliver Wendell Holmes
9) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) Congress could use the necessary and proper clause to charter a national bank.
B) Maryland could not create a state bank because it is an enumerated power given
explicitly to Congress.
C) James McCulloch could not establish a bank in Maryland because he did not own
property in the state.
D) the Declaration of Independence does not carry any legal force.
E) the Commerce Clause is unconstitutionally vague and, therefore, prohibits establishing a
bank.
10) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) state laws trump national laws.
B) the supremacy clause prohibits states from taxing the federal government.
C) the scope of Congressʹs authority to create laws is strictly limited to the enumerated
powers.
D) the full faith and credit clause provides sufficient collateral to establish a national bank.
E) Congress has the power of judicial review over laws passed by the states.
A) those powers granted to Congress by the Constitution
B) those powers granted to the president by the Constitution
C) those powers which are ʺnecessary and properʺ for carrying out the enumerated powers
D) those powers reserved to the states by the Tenth Amendment
E) those powers protected by the supremacy clause
2) only the state governments
B) only the national government
C) only Congress
D) only the president
E) both the state governments and the national government
3) Under the Constitution, governments are prohibited from passing
A) economic regulations.
B) writs of habeas corpus.
C) ex post facto laws.
D) revenue measures.
E) block grants.
4) Why was the Tenth Amendment added to the Constitution?
A) concern among Anti-Federalists that the national government would claim powers
otherwise belonging to the states
B) to ensure that a state could not sue the national government without its permission
C) because the Constitution failed to list powers belonging to the national government
D) in order to minimize the economic hardships of the Founders
E) because Chief Justice John Marshall refused to hear cases involving constitutional issues,
noting that the Constitution does not explicitly grant to power of judicial review to the
judiciary
5) A law declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial is called a(n)
A) bill of attainder.
B) writ of mandamus.
C) ex post facto law.
D) habeas corpus act.
E) ex officio law.
6) The clause that ensures that judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding
and enforceable in another is called the ________ clause.
A) privileges and immunities
B) full faith and credit
C) extraordinary rendition
D) bill of attainder
E) supremacy
7) How are local governments established?
A) by an act of Congress
B) by submitting an interstate compact to the attorney general
C) by state governments
D) by application to the United States Court of Federal Claims
E) by executive orders issued by the president
8) In the early 1800s, who was the Chief Justice who oversaw important federalism decisions,
including Marbury v. Madison and Gibbons v. Ogden?
A) Robert Bork
B) Oliver Ellsworth
C) Brushrod Washington
D) John Marshall
E) Oliver Wendell Holmes
9) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) Congress could use the necessary and proper clause to charter a national bank.
B) Maryland could not create a state bank because it is an enumerated power given
explicitly to Congress.
C) James McCulloch could not establish a bank in Maryland because he did not own
property in the state.
D) the Declaration of Independence does not carry any legal force.
E) the Commerce Clause is unconstitutionally vague and, therefore, prohibits establishing a
bank.
10) In McCulloch v. Maryland (1816), the Supreme Court ruled that
A) state laws trump national laws.
B) the supremacy clause prohibits states from taxing the federal government.
C) the scope of Congressʹs authority to create laws is strictly limited to the enumerated
powers.
D) the full faith and credit clause provides sufficient collateral to establish a national bank.
E) Congress has the power of judicial review over laws passed by the states.
Monday, September 26, 2011
3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions Pages 96-101
1) Which of the following best describes the ability of the various levels of government to work
together in the immediate aftermath of Hurricane Katrina?
A) State, local, and federal governments worked together seamlessly.
B) State and local governments worked with each other seamlessly, but did not coordinate
their activities with the federal government.
C) The government of Louisiana and the federal government worked together seamlessly,
but the Mayor of New Orleans preferred to work independently.
D) State, local, and federal governments were not able to coordinate effectively.
E) While state, local, and federal governments worked together well in the immediate
aftermath of the hurricane, their ability to coordinate dissipated as the crisis unfolded.
2) The most common type of government in the United States is the
A) county government.
B) township government.
C) municipal government.
D) school district.
E) special district.
3) What system of government is used in the United States?
A) a federal system
B) a confederation
C) a fiscal system
D) a unitary system
E) a renal system
4) Which type of government derives all of its power from the states?
A) socialism
B) a federal system
C) a confederation
D) a unitary system
E) a theocracy
5) Article I, section 8 gives Congress the power to pass all laws ʺnecessary and properʺ to
carrying out its enumerated powers. This clause is also known as the
A) enumerated powers clause.
B) reserve powers clause.
C) implied powers clause.
D) full faith and credit clause.
E) expressed powers clause.
6) In a federal system, the states derive their power from ________ and the national government
derives its power from ________.
A) the national government; the state governments
B) the state legislature; Congress
C) the states; the people
D) the people; the states
E) the people; the people
7) Which of the following is a concurrent power?
A) taxation
B) coining money
C) establishing federal courts
D) regulating commerce within a state
E) conducting war
8) Where state law conflicts with national law, national law prevails due to
A) federalism.
B) the supremacy clause.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) full faith and credit.
E) sovereign immunity.
9) Which of the following best describes the powers explicitly granted to state governments by
the Constitution?
A) State governments were given the enumerated powers.
B) State governments were given the expressed powers.
C) State governments were given the implied powers.
D) The powers granted to the state governments are spelled out in Article V of the
Constitution.
E) State government powers are not explicitly spelled out in the Constitution.
10) Identify the following phrase: ʺThe powers not delegated to the United States by the
Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the
people.ʺ
A) the establishment clause
B) the full faith and credit clause
C) the enumerated powers
D) Article I, section 8
E) the Tenth Amendment
together in the immediate aftermath of Hurricane Katrina?
A) State, local, and federal governments worked together seamlessly.
B) State and local governments worked with each other seamlessly, but did not coordinate
their activities with the federal government.
C) The government of Louisiana and the federal government worked together seamlessly,
but the Mayor of New Orleans preferred to work independently.
D) State, local, and federal governments were not able to coordinate effectively.
E) While state, local, and federal governments worked together well in the immediate
aftermath of the hurricane, their ability to coordinate dissipated as the crisis unfolded.
2) The most common type of government in the United States is the
A) county government.
B) township government.
C) municipal government.
D) school district.
E) special district.
3) What system of government is used in the United States?
A) a federal system
B) a confederation
C) a fiscal system
D) a unitary system
E) a renal system
4) Which type of government derives all of its power from the states?
A) socialism
B) a federal system
C) a confederation
D) a unitary system
E) a theocracy
5) Article I, section 8 gives Congress the power to pass all laws ʺnecessary and properʺ to
carrying out its enumerated powers. This clause is also known as the
A) enumerated powers clause.
B) reserve powers clause.
C) implied powers clause.
D) full faith and credit clause.
E) expressed powers clause.
6) In a federal system, the states derive their power from ________ and the national government
derives its power from ________.
A) the national government; the state governments
B) the state legislature; Congress
C) the states; the people
D) the people; the states
E) the people; the people
7) Which of the following is a concurrent power?
A) taxation
B) coining money
C) establishing federal courts
D) regulating commerce within a state
E) conducting war
8) Where state law conflicts with national law, national law prevails due to
A) federalism.
B) the supremacy clause.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) full faith and credit.
E) sovereign immunity.
9) Which of the following best describes the powers explicitly granted to state governments by
the Constitution?
A) State governments were given the enumerated powers.
B) State governments were given the expressed powers.
C) State governments were given the implied powers.
D) The powers granted to the state governments are spelled out in Article V of the
Constitution.
E) State government powers are not explicitly spelled out in the Constitution.
10) Identify the following phrase: ʺThe powers not delegated to the United States by the
Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the
people.ʺ
A) the establishment clause
B) the full faith and credit clause
C) the enumerated powers
D) Article I, section 8
E) the Tenth Amendment
Friday, September 23, 2011
2.2 True/False Questions
1) The Twenty-Sixth Amendment guarantees the right to vote to all citizens who are at least
seventeen years old.
2) The Framers intended the amendment process to be difficult.
3) Following the French and Indian War, the British government and the colonists agreed that
westward expansion should be curtailed.
4) The Sons of Liberty were organized to fight the French and Indian War.
5) The Boston Tea Party was held to celebrate the signing of the Declaration of Independence.
6) Thomas Paine wrote Common Sense to argue for American independence.
7) Shaysʹs Rebellion was the first battle of the Revolutionary War.
8) The Declaration of Independence draws from the teachings of John Locke.
9) Under the Articles of Confederation, it was difficult for the federal government to collect tax
revenue and, therefore, to pay for anything the government wanted or needed to do.
10) The 1787 Constitutional Convention was called for the ʺsole and express purpose of revising
the Articles of Confederation.ʺ
11) Larger states tended to prefer the New Jersey Plan.
12) The Great Compromise resulted in a bicameral legislature, with all spending and taxing bills
originating in the House of Representatives.
13) To appease southern states, slaves were counted as three-fifths of a person for the purpose of
determining how many seats each state would have in the House of Representatives.
14) The Committee on Unfinished Portions was charged with ironing out the details of the
executive branch.
15) In order to prevent any one component of government from becoming too powerful, the
Framers separated powers among the three branches of government.
16) The enumerated powers are explicitly listed in the necessary and proper clause.
17) The Constitution prohibits Arnold Schwarzenegger from becoming president.
18) The executive branch is described in Article II of the Constitution.
19) The supremacy clause prevents government from establishing an official religion.
20) The Iraqi Constitution guarantees citizens housing and health care.
21) The Federalists tended to draw support from small farmers, shopkeepers, and laborers.
22) Ratification of the Constitution required approval of nine out of the 13 states.
23) The Equal Rights Amendment passed Congress and was ratified by the requisite number of
states in 1982, becoming the most recent constitutional amendment.
24) Both the House and the Senate have passed an anti-flag burning amendment with a
two-thirds majority. When a simple majority of state legislatures ratify the amendment, it will
officially become part of the Constitution.
25) Supreme Court decisions can change the meaning of the Constitution.
26) The Constitution has only changed through formal amendments.
seventeen years old.
2) The Framers intended the amendment process to be difficult.
3) Following the French and Indian War, the British government and the colonists agreed that
westward expansion should be curtailed.
4) The Sons of Liberty were organized to fight the French and Indian War.
5) The Boston Tea Party was held to celebrate the signing of the Declaration of Independence.
6) Thomas Paine wrote Common Sense to argue for American independence.
7) Shaysʹs Rebellion was the first battle of the Revolutionary War.
8) The Declaration of Independence draws from the teachings of John Locke.
9) Under the Articles of Confederation, it was difficult for the federal government to collect tax
revenue and, therefore, to pay for anything the government wanted or needed to do.
10) The 1787 Constitutional Convention was called for the ʺsole and express purpose of revising
the Articles of Confederation.ʺ
11) Larger states tended to prefer the New Jersey Plan.
12) The Great Compromise resulted in a bicameral legislature, with all spending and taxing bills
originating in the House of Representatives.
13) To appease southern states, slaves were counted as three-fifths of a person for the purpose of
determining how many seats each state would have in the House of Representatives.
14) The Committee on Unfinished Portions was charged with ironing out the details of the
executive branch.
15) In order to prevent any one component of government from becoming too powerful, the
Framers separated powers among the three branches of government.
16) The enumerated powers are explicitly listed in the necessary and proper clause.
17) The Constitution prohibits Arnold Schwarzenegger from becoming president.
18) The executive branch is described in Article II of the Constitution.
19) The supremacy clause prevents government from establishing an official religion.
20) The Iraqi Constitution guarantees citizens housing and health care.
21) The Federalists tended to draw support from small farmers, shopkeepers, and laborers.
22) Ratification of the Constitution required approval of nine out of the 13 states.
23) The Equal Rights Amendment passed Congress and was ratified by the requisite number of
states in 1982, becoming the most recent constitutional amendment.
24) Both the House and the Senate have passed an anti-flag burning amendment with a
two-thirds majority. When a simple majority of state legislatures ratify the amendment, it will
officially become part of the Constitution.
25) Supreme Court decisions can change the meaning of the Constitution.
26) The Constitution has only changed through formal amendments.
Wednesday, September 21, 2011
FRQ on the Constitution Question #1(2001)
The United States Constitution has endured for more than two centuries as the
framework of government. However, the meaning of the Constitution has been
changed both by formal and informal methods.
a. Identify two formal methods for adding amendments to the Constitution.
b. Describe two informal methods that have been used to change the
meaning of the Constitution. Provide one specific example for each
informal method you described.
c. Explain why informal methods are used more often than the formal amendment process
A1. One formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is through the process by which amendment proposals if passed 2/3ds of both Houses of Congress, are then sent to the state legislatures. If 3/4s of these legislatures ratify the amendment proposal, then the amendment is added to the Constitution.
A2. Another formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is completed through the states. In this scenario a statewide Constitutional Convention is called by Congress and held and if 2/3rds of state representatives approve the proposal, it is then sent off the state legislatures and will become ratified if ¾’s of these legislatures approve it. This method has never been used before.
B1. One informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the Elastic Clause and Congress-it essentially gives the legislative branch substantial power to make laws necessary and proper to carry out the functions of the federal government that may not be formally expressed in the Constitution. While a national bank was not mentioned in the Constitution, the Supreme Court decision, McCulloch v. Maryland allowed for a national banks’ authority over state banks-the State of Maryland could not tax a federal bank.
B2. Another informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the judicial process. Many constitutional questions have been the subject of court cases. Oftentimes, the 14th Amendment is involved in adjusting the Constitution. For example, in the case of Gideon v. Wainwright, the US Supreme Court held that an individual had the right to an attorney on the state level whereas originally the Constitution only allowed for federal representation.
C1. Informal methods for changing the Constitution are used far more often than the formal amendment process because they are much easier to affect. The 2/3rds proposal and ¾’s ratification process has produced only 27 amendments over the past 200 years. By contrast, legislative and judicial methods for “tweaking” the Constitution require far less time and far less need for consensus.
framework of government. However, the meaning of the Constitution has been
changed both by formal and informal methods.
a. Identify two formal methods for adding amendments to the Constitution.
b. Describe two informal methods that have been used to change the
meaning of the Constitution. Provide one specific example for each
informal method you described.
c. Explain why informal methods are used more often than the formal amendment process
A1. One formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is through the process by which amendment proposals if passed 2/3ds of both Houses of Congress, are then sent to the state legislatures. If 3/4s of these legislatures ratify the amendment proposal, then the amendment is added to the Constitution.
A2. Another formal method for adding amendments to the Constitution is completed through the states. In this scenario a statewide Constitutional Convention is called by Congress and held and if 2/3rds of state representatives approve the proposal, it is then sent off the state legislatures and will become ratified if ¾’s of these legislatures approve it. This method has never been used before.
B1. One informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the Elastic Clause and Congress-it essentially gives the legislative branch substantial power to make laws necessary and proper to carry out the functions of the federal government that may not be formally expressed in the Constitution. While a national bank was not mentioned in the Constitution, the Supreme Court decision, McCulloch v. Maryland allowed for a national banks’ authority over state banks-the State of Maryland could not tax a federal bank.
B2. Another informal method that has been used to change the meaning of the Constitution relates to the judicial process. Many constitutional questions have been the subject of court cases. Oftentimes, the 14th Amendment is involved in adjusting the Constitution. For example, in the case of Gideon v. Wainwright, the US Supreme Court held that an individual had the right to an attorney on the state level whereas originally the Constitution only allowed for federal representation.
C1. Informal methods for changing the Constitution are used far more often than the formal amendment process because they are much easier to affect. The 2/3rds proposal and ¾’s ratification process has produced only 27 amendments over the past 200 years. By contrast, legislative and judicial methods for “tweaking” the Constitution require far less time and far less need for consensus.
2.2 Pages 38-43
1) The Declaration of Independence was drafted by
A) James Madison.
B) Thomas Jefferson.
C) George Washington.
D) John Stewart.
E) John Locke.
2) The Declaration of Independence contains
A) Hobbesʹs Second Treatise on Government.
B) the Bill of Rights.
C) arguments in support of the Constitution.
D) a list of complaints against the British government.
E) no references to Great Britain.
3) A type of government in which the national government is weaker than the sum of its parts is
called
A) a confederacy.
B) federalism.
C) a unitary system.
D) pluralism.
E) totalitarianism.
4) The government established after the Declaration of Independence was the
A) Constitution.
B) Federation Treaty.
C) Articles of Confederation.
D) Magna Carta.
E) Declaration of the Rights of Man.
5) Which of the following is a weakness of the Articles of Confederation?
A) The federal government had the power to regulate interstate commerce.
B) The federal government had the power to regulate commerce with foreign nations.
C) Congress collected excessive taxes from the states.
D) Congress could rarely muster a quorum.
E) Federal government spending was lavish.
6) Under the Articles of Confederation, the executive branch was
A) the workhorse of the federal government.
B) virtually nonexistent.
C) quite strong.
D) dominated by Torries.
E) responsible for enacting all laws.
7) The significance of Shaysʹs rebellion is that it
A) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent farmsteads.
B) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent merchants.
C) prevented Massachusetts from joining the Articles of Confederation.
D) established the principle of ʺno taxation without representation.ʺ
E) convinced the colonists that the Articles of Confederation were too weak.
8) What was the ʺsole and express purposeʺ for which the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was
called?
A) to declare independence from Great Britain
B) to revise the Articles of Confederation
C) to draft the Constitution
D) to draft the Bill of Rights
E) to find a way to quell Shaysʹs Rebellion
9) The Virginia Plan called for a national system with
A) a weak central government.
B) a single legislature with representation according to population.
C) a strong central government and a bicameral legislature.
D) equality among the states.
E) no state governments whatsoever.
10) The smaller states presented a plan at the Constitutional Convention advocating the
strengthening of the Articles of Confederation. The plan was presented by
A) Maine.
B) Rhode Island.
C) New Jersey.
D) Connecticut.
E) Virginia.
A) James Madison.
B) Thomas Jefferson.
C) George Washington.
D) John Stewart.
E) John Locke.
2) The Declaration of Independence contains
A) Hobbesʹs Second Treatise on Government.
B) the Bill of Rights.
C) arguments in support of the Constitution.
D) a list of complaints against the British government.
E) no references to Great Britain.
3) A type of government in which the national government is weaker than the sum of its parts is
called
A) a confederacy.
B) federalism.
C) a unitary system.
D) pluralism.
E) totalitarianism.
4) The government established after the Declaration of Independence was the
A) Constitution.
B) Federation Treaty.
C) Articles of Confederation.
D) Magna Carta.
E) Declaration of the Rights of Man.
5) Which of the following is a weakness of the Articles of Confederation?
A) The federal government had the power to regulate interstate commerce.
B) The federal government had the power to regulate commerce with foreign nations.
C) Congress collected excessive taxes from the states.
D) Congress could rarely muster a quorum.
E) Federal government spending was lavish.
6) Under the Articles of Confederation, the executive branch was
A) the workhorse of the federal government.
B) virtually nonexistent.
C) quite strong.
D) dominated by Torries.
E) responsible for enacting all laws.
7) The significance of Shaysʹs rebellion is that it
A) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent farmsteads.
B) forced the banks to foreclose on delinquent merchants.
C) prevented Massachusetts from joining the Articles of Confederation.
D) established the principle of ʺno taxation without representation.ʺ
E) convinced the colonists that the Articles of Confederation were too weak.
8) What was the ʺsole and express purposeʺ for which the Constitutional Convention of 1787 was
called?
A) to declare independence from Great Britain
B) to revise the Articles of Confederation
C) to draft the Constitution
D) to draft the Bill of Rights
E) to find a way to quell Shaysʹs Rebellion
9) The Virginia Plan called for a national system with
A) a weak central government.
B) a single legislature with representation according to population.
C) a strong central government and a bicameral legislature.
D) equality among the states.
E) no state governments whatsoever.
10) The smaller states presented a plan at the Constitutional Convention advocating the
strengthening of the Articles of Confederation. The plan was presented by
A) Maine.
B) Rhode Island.
C) New Jersey.
D) Connecticut.
E) Virginia.
Tuesday, September 20, 2011
2.1 Sabato Pages 32-36
1) The right of eighteen-year-olds to vote in all elections was firmly established by
A) Article I of the Constitution.
B) Article II of the Constitution.
C) the Bill of Rights.
D) the Twenty-Sixth Amendment.
E) an act of Congress.
2) Which of the following accurately describes constitutional amendments?
A) Amending the Constitution is easy.
B) Amending the Constitution is difficult.
C) Amending the Constitution is frequently successful.
D) Very few constitutional amendments have been proposed.
E) Very few constitutional amendments have been sent to the states for ratification.
3) Why did the British Parliament enact the Sugar Act of 1764, which taxed goods imported by the colonists such as sugar, wine, and coffee?
A) to punish the colonists for ʺtreacherous rebellions and insurrectionsʺ
B) to fund the Louisiana Purchase
C) to help pay for the French and Indian War
D) to discourage the use of ʺitems whose sinful nature compromises the sanctity of Her
Majestyʹs subjectsʺ
E) to provoke the colonists into rebellion
4) In 1765, American colonists were especially upset over
A) the Treaty of Paris.
B) the Stamp Act.
C) the Articles of Confederation.
D) the Magna Carta.
E) the Boston Tea Party.
5) A major complaint of the Sons of Liberty was
A) taxation without representation.
B) excessive immigration.
C) the selection of delegates to the Virginia House of Burgesses.
D) infrequent mail delivery from Britain.
E) the ineffectiveness of the Mayflower Compact.
6) How did Britain respond to the Boston Tea Party?
A) The king hosted his own British Tea Party in the English Channel.
B) The king ignored the incident and hoped the insurrection in the colonies would go away.
C) Parliament hired Indians to burn the property of Bostonʹs merchants.
D) Parliament enacted a law that blockaded Boston Harbor.
E) British soldiers were told disband the Sons of Liberty ʺby any means necessary, be they
legal or otherwise.ʺ
7) The First Continental Congress was most concerned about
A) the ongoing French and Indian War.
B) the extent of British authority over the colonies.
C) ensuring access to imported tea and sugar.
D) establishing a written Constitution for the newly united colonies.
E) punishing the Sons of Liberty for various illegal acts.
8) The First Continental Congress had delegates from
A) nine of the 13 colonies.
B) every colony except Georgia.
C) all 13 colonies.
D) all 13 colonies and the British Parliament.
E) all 13 colonies, the Indians, and the British Parliament.
9) Fighting in the American Revolution broke out in the battle at
A) Saratoga, New York.
B) Trenton, New Jersey.
C) Lexington and Concord, Massachusetts.
D) New York, New York.
E) Yorktown, Virginia.
10) In Common Sense, Thomas Paine argues
A) for independence from Great Britain.
B) in favor or mercantilism.
C) that Great Britain should use the might of the British military to keep the colonies in line.
D) in favor or quartering British soldiers.
E) for a colonial government with its capital in Washington.
A) Article I of the Constitution.
B) Article II of the Constitution.
C) the Bill of Rights.
D) the Twenty-Sixth Amendment.
E) an act of Congress.
2) Which of the following accurately describes constitutional amendments?
A) Amending the Constitution is easy.
B) Amending the Constitution is difficult.
C) Amending the Constitution is frequently successful.
D) Very few constitutional amendments have been proposed.
E) Very few constitutional amendments have been sent to the states for ratification.
3) Why did the British Parliament enact the Sugar Act of 1764, which taxed goods imported by the colonists such as sugar, wine, and coffee?
A) to punish the colonists for ʺtreacherous rebellions and insurrectionsʺ
B) to fund the Louisiana Purchase
C) to help pay for the French and Indian War
D) to discourage the use of ʺitems whose sinful nature compromises the sanctity of Her
Majestyʹs subjectsʺ
E) to provoke the colonists into rebellion
4) In 1765, American colonists were especially upset over
A) the Treaty of Paris.
B) the Stamp Act.
C) the Articles of Confederation.
D) the Magna Carta.
E) the Boston Tea Party.
5) A major complaint of the Sons of Liberty was
A) taxation without representation.
B) excessive immigration.
C) the selection of delegates to the Virginia House of Burgesses.
D) infrequent mail delivery from Britain.
E) the ineffectiveness of the Mayflower Compact.
6) How did Britain respond to the Boston Tea Party?
A) The king hosted his own British Tea Party in the English Channel.
B) The king ignored the incident and hoped the insurrection in the colonies would go away.
C) Parliament hired Indians to burn the property of Bostonʹs merchants.
D) Parliament enacted a law that blockaded Boston Harbor.
E) British soldiers were told disband the Sons of Liberty ʺby any means necessary, be they
legal or otherwise.ʺ
7) The First Continental Congress was most concerned about
A) the ongoing French and Indian War.
B) the extent of British authority over the colonies.
C) ensuring access to imported tea and sugar.
D) establishing a written Constitution for the newly united colonies.
E) punishing the Sons of Liberty for various illegal acts.
8) The First Continental Congress had delegates from
A) nine of the 13 colonies.
B) every colony except Georgia.
C) all 13 colonies.
D) all 13 colonies and the British Parliament.
E) all 13 colonies, the Indians, and the British Parliament.
9) Fighting in the American Revolution broke out in the battle at
A) Saratoga, New York.
B) Trenton, New Jersey.
C) Lexington and Concord, Massachusetts.
D) New York, New York.
E) Yorktown, Virginia.
10) In Common Sense, Thomas Paine argues
A) for independence from Great Britain.
B) in favor or mercantilism.
C) that Great Britain should use the might of the British military to keep the colonies in line.
D) in favor or quartering British soldiers.
E) for a colonial government with its capital in Washington.
Monday, September 19, 2011
Revised Sabato Pages 23 to 28.....MY BAD and thanks to Carlos Muros!!!
1) Social conservatives are most concerned about
A) human rights.
B) economic equality.
C) poverty.
D) moral decay.
E) making money.
2) Who most strongly believes that government should promote equality and provide social services?
A) liberals
B) moderates
C) populists
D) libertarians
E) conservatives
3) Who is most likely to favor government regulation of sexual and social behavior?
A) libertarians
B) Democrats
C) moderates
D) conservatives
E) social conservatives
4) Which of the following best describes American attitudes toward government?
A) adulation
B) trust
C) awe
D) cynicism
E) civic virtue
5) In recent decades, what has happened to the faith citizens place in American institutions, such
as Congress, the press, and industry?
A) It has increased.
B) It has increased and decreased in cyclical fashion.
C) It has remained fairly constant.
D) It has fluctuated randomly.
E) It has decreased.
6) What do the authors mean when they say that Americans have a .missing appreciation of the
good.?
A) Americans are less likely to respect politicians and other authority figures.
B) Voters tend to look at the glass as half full instead of as half empty.
C) The size of the American population has been increasing exponentially.
D) Good things often come in small packages.
E) Americans tend to overlook the significant improvements government has made in
Americans. lives.
7) Who is Tom DeLay?
A) the author of the Constitution
B) the leader of the religious right
C) the former House majority leader who resigned in the wake of political scandals
D) the president of Head Start
E) the architect behind Franklin Roosevelt.s New Deal
8) What was the most common reason citizens gave for NOT voting in 2004?
A) They did not like either candidate.
B) Polling places were open at inconvenient hours.
C) The weather was bad.
D) They did not know enough about the candidates.
E) They were too busy.
9) In the wake of the 9/11 terrorists attacks, Americans are more willing to accept
A) a lower standard of living.
B) terrorism.
C) social upheaval.
D) reduced civil liberties.
E) totalitarianism.
A) human rights.
B) economic equality.
C) poverty.
D) moral decay.
E) making money.
2) Who most strongly believes that government should promote equality and provide social services?
A) liberals
B) moderates
C) populists
D) libertarians
E) conservatives
3) Who is most likely to favor government regulation of sexual and social behavior?
A) libertarians
B) Democrats
C) moderates
D) conservatives
E) social conservatives
4) Which of the following best describes American attitudes toward government?
A) adulation
B) trust
C) awe
D) cynicism
E) civic virtue
5) In recent decades, what has happened to the faith citizens place in American institutions, such
as Congress, the press, and industry?
A) It has increased.
B) It has increased and decreased in cyclical fashion.
C) It has remained fairly constant.
D) It has fluctuated randomly.
E) It has decreased.
6) What do the authors mean when they say that Americans have a .missing appreciation of the
good.?
A) Americans are less likely to respect politicians and other authority figures.
B) Voters tend to look at the glass as half full instead of as half empty.
C) The size of the American population has been increasing exponentially.
D) Good things often come in small packages.
E) Americans tend to overlook the significant improvements government has made in
Americans. lives.
7) Who is Tom DeLay?
A) the author of the Constitution
B) the leader of the religious right
C) the former House majority leader who resigned in the wake of political scandals
D) the president of Head Start
E) the architect behind Franklin Roosevelt.s New Deal
8) What was the most common reason citizens gave for NOT voting in 2004?
A) They did not like either candidate.
B) Polling places were open at inconvenient hours.
C) The weather was bad.
D) They did not know enough about the candidates.
E) They were too busy.
9) In the wake of the 9/11 terrorists attacks, Americans are more willing to accept
A) a lower standard of living.
B) terrorism.
C) social upheaval.
D) reduced civil liberties.
E) totalitarianism.
Sabato Chapter 14.3 Pages 521-530
1) In the weeks before the 2004 presidential debates,
A) the Bush campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Kerryʹs skills.
B) the Kerry campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Bushʹs skills.
C) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their own debating skills.
D) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their opponentʹs debating skills.
E) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played down their opponentʹs debating skills.
2) What was the Supreme Courtʹs decision in McConnell v. Federal Election Commission?
A) The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act was unconstitutional.
B) Preventing political corruption overrides the partiesʹ free speech rights.
C) Congress can not restrict political contributions.
D) Public financing of political campaigns is unconstitutional.
E) McConnell lacked standing to sue and the case was sent back to the district court.
3) Which of the following is a provision of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act?
A) All campaigns must accept matching funds.
B) Congressional campaigns will be publicly funded.
C) A prohibition on soft money.
D) Supporters can no longer give money to a candidateʹs campaign committees; all money
must be given directly to candidates.
E) Citizens can give no more than $500 to a single candidate and no more than $2000 to any
candidate in a given election cycle.
4) Which of the following is least important for holding free and fair elections?
A) freedom of speech
B) a lengthy campaign season
C) freedom of assembly
D) a lack of government coercion over the process
E) secret ballots
5) Who can establish political action committees?
A) interest groups
B) candidates
C) foreign citizens
D) political parties
E) government entities
6) How does the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act affect political action committees?
A) PACs are prohibited from giving money to incumbents.
B) PACs are prohibited from giving money to challengers.
C) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for electioneering communications only.
D) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for administrative costs only.
E) PACS are prohibited from giving candidates money within 90 days of an upcoming
election.
7) Who establishes leadership PACs?
A) labor unions
B) corporations
C) members of Congress
D) trade associations
E) CEOs
8) Who can contribute unlimited amounts of money to a candidateʹs campaign?
A) individual citizens
B) 527 groups
C) corporate PACs
D) leadership PACs
E) Candidates can contribute unlimited amounts of money to their own campaigns.
9) How does public financing work in the general election?
A) Congressional candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to
spend any additional money.
B) Presidential candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to spend
any additional money.
C) Congressional candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
D) Presidential candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
E) Presidential and congressional candidates share whatever money is available in the
Election Campaign Fund.
10) Which of the following groups thinks that regulations on campaign contributions are a good
thing?
A) National Rifle Association
B) American Civil Liberties Union
C) Common Cause
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
A) the Bush campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Kerryʹs skills.
B) the Kerry campaign played up his debating skills while playing down Bushʹs skills.
C) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their own debating skills.
D) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played up their opponentʹs debating skills.
E) the Bush and Kerry campaigns both played down their opponentʹs debating skills.
2) What was the Supreme Courtʹs decision in McConnell v. Federal Election Commission?
A) The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act was unconstitutional.
B) Preventing political corruption overrides the partiesʹ free speech rights.
C) Congress can not restrict political contributions.
D) Public financing of political campaigns is unconstitutional.
E) McConnell lacked standing to sue and the case was sent back to the district court.
3) Which of the following is a provision of the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act?
A) All campaigns must accept matching funds.
B) Congressional campaigns will be publicly funded.
C) A prohibition on soft money.
D) Supporters can no longer give money to a candidateʹs campaign committees; all money
must be given directly to candidates.
E) Citizens can give no more than $500 to a single candidate and no more than $2000 to any
candidate in a given election cycle.
4) Which of the following is least important for holding free and fair elections?
A) freedom of speech
B) a lengthy campaign season
C) freedom of assembly
D) a lack of government coercion over the process
E) secret ballots
5) Who can establish political action committees?
A) interest groups
B) candidates
C) foreign citizens
D) political parties
E) government entities
6) How does the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act affect political action committees?
A) PACs are prohibited from giving money to incumbents.
B) PACs are prohibited from giving money to challengers.
C) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for electioneering communications only.
D) PACs must use corporate or union contributions for administrative costs only.
E) PACS are prohibited from giving candidates money within 90 days of an upcoming
election.
7) Who establishes leadership PACs?
A) labor unions
B) corporations
C) members of Congress
D) trade associations
E) CEOs
8) Who can contribute unlimited amounts of money to a candidateʹs campaign?
A) individual citizens
B) 527 groups
C) corporate PACs
D) leadership PACs
E) Candidates can contribute unlimited amounts of money to their own campaigns.
9) How does public financing work in the general election?
A) Congressional candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to
spend any additional money.
B) Presidential candidates receive $75 million in public financing if they agree not to spend
any additional money.
C) Congressional candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
D) Presidential candidates receive $1 in public financing for every $1 they raise from
individual contributions.
E) Presidential and congressional candidates share whatever money is available in the
Election Campaign Fund.
10) Which of the following groups thinks that regulations on campaign contributions are a good
thing?
A) National Rifle Association
B) American Civil Liberties Union
C) Common Cause
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Thursday, September 15, 2011
AOC FRQ-My Response
AOC FRQ
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned taxation. No national system existed for tax collection which could have been used for a number of services including paying a national military to protect the new nation from French and English pirating. One solution that the Constitution provided to address taxation was laid out in Article I which provided congress with the power to collect state revenue in the form of taxes.
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned the absense of a national judiciary. A number of legal disputes emerged between states which lacked a national form of arbitration. One solution that the Constitution provided to the lack of judicial authority included the creation of the judicial branch under Article III of the Constitution which would among other things, provide legal authority to the national government to resolved disputes among the states.
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was the absense of a national currency. Under the Articles of Confederation, no guidance was given states related to currency. Consequently, each state printed their own money which created significant problems including hyperinflation within states as well as trade disputes between states.
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was the authority given to Congress to coin money as well as the new prohibition on states from continuing to print their own currency. As the result, a new national currency was created which solved a number of economic problems througout the colonies.
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension. The federal government has for over 30 years implemented clean air standards using the Environmental Protection Agency as its enforcement agency. Many states have been told to clean up their air to acceptable national standards or potentially face sanctions from the federal government. In some cases, the threat of a cutoff of federal highway funds has been used as a means to get states to comply with federal clean air standards. While there has been substantial improvement in air standards over the past 30 years, tensions have continued to boil over between states and the federal government over air quality issues. With a current nationalwide economic recession, many states citing financial concerns have recently balked at certain government mandates related to clean air demonstrating that tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned taxation. No national system existed for tax collection which could have been used for a number of services including paying a national military to protect the new nation from French and English pirating. One solution that the Constitution provided to address taxation was laid out in Article I which provided congress with the power to collect state revenue in the form of taxes.
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation concerned the absense of a national judiciary. A number of legal disputes emerged between states which lacked a national form of arbitration. One solution that the Constitution provided to the lack of judicial authority included the creation of the judicial branch under Article III of the Constitution which would among other things, provide legal authority to the national government to resolved disputes among the states.
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was the absense of a national currency. Under the Articles of Confederation, no guidance was given states related to currency. Consequently, each state printed their own money which created significant problems including hyperinflation within states as well as trade disputes between states.
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was the authority given to Congress to coin money as well as the new prohibition on states from continuing to print their own currency. As the result, a new national currency was created which solved a number of economic problems througout the colonies.
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension. The federal government has for over 30 years implemented clean air standards using the Environmental Protection Agency as its enforcement agency. Many states have been told to clean up their air to acceptable national standards or potentially face sanctions from the federal government. In some cases, the threat of a cutoff of federal highway funds has been used as a means to get states to comply with federal clean air standards. While there has been substantial improvement in air standards over the past 30 years, tensions have continued to boil over between states and the federal government over air quality issues. With a current nationalwide economic recession, many states citing financial concerns have recently balked at certain government mandates related to clean air demonstrating that tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
No Sabato Tonight...Just the FRQ
Class: Here is the setup for tonight’s FRQ. Please attempt to complete the FRQ on your own and then stay tuned later on this evening for my response….
1. The Constitution was an attempt to address problems of decentralization that were experienced under the Articles of Confederation.
(a) List three problems of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of Confederation. For each problem you listed, identify one solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem.
(b)Some have argued that the tensions between decentralized and centralized power continue to exist. Support this argument by explaining how one of the following illustrates the continuing tension:
•Environmental policy
•Gun control
•Disability access
AOC FRQ
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension because…..
1. The Constitution was an attempt to address problems of decentralization that were experienced under the Articles of Confederation.
(a) List three problems of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of Confederation. For each problem you listed, identify one solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem.
(b)Some have argued that the tensions between decentralized and centralized power continue to exist. Support this argument by explaining how one of the following illustrates the continuing tension:
•Environmental policy
•Gun control
•Disability access
AOC FRQ
A1. One problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A2. Another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
A3. Yet another problem of decentralized power that existed under the Articles of
Confederation was…..
One solution that the Constitution provided to address the problem was….
B1. Tensions between decentralized and centralized power do continue to exist.
Environmental Policy continues to illustrate this tension because…..
Wednesday, September 14, 2011
Sabato 1.2 Pages 11-13
1) Direct democracy is distinguished by
A) representative government and the rule of law.
B) citizen decision making and majority rule.
C) power and influence.
D) political appointments and social engineering.
E) a social contract and republican government.
2) In an indirect democracy, public policies are determined by
A) consensus.
B) oligarchs.
C) religious figures.
D) representatives.
E) economic elites.
3) Which of the following is a contemporary example of direct democracy?
A) trial by jury
B) New England town meetings
C) congressional elections
D) political protests
E) the Electoral College
4) Personal liberty is most closely related to
A) freedom. B) equality. C) civility. D) fascism. E) suffrage.
5) American political culture emphasizes
A) collaboration.
B) agnosticism.
C) atheism.
D) political equality.
E) socialism.
6) The belief that authority in society ultimately rests with the people is known as
A) establishmentarianism.
B) natural rights.
C) common law.
D) popular sovereignty.
E) Hobbesian law.
7) The belief that society should be governed by certain ethical principles that are part of nature
and can be understood by reason is called
A) ethical law.
B) contract law.
C) natural law.
D) Newtonʹs law.
E) civil law.
8) A civil society
A) is ʺnasty, brutish, and short.ʺ
B) is ruled by a leviathan.
C) encourages citizens to engage in policy debates.
D) is harmful to democracy.
E) hinders a frank exchange of ideas.
9) George W. Bush has argued that the United States
A) should guarantee social, political, and economic equality.
B) should spread democracy abroad.
C) would be better off under the rule of a benevolent dictator.
D) should reduce dependence on fossil fuels by reducing economic growth.
E) should return to its isolationist roots.
10) Americans are most likely to believe that
A) politicians can be trusted.
B) presidents should have strong religious beliefs.
C) illegal immigration benefits the American economy.
D) government should avoid moderate policies.
E) Social Security should be eliminated.
A) representative government and the rule of law.
B) citizen decision making and majority rule.
C) power and influence.
D) political appointments and social engineering.
E) a social contract and republican government.
2) In an indirect democracy, public policies are determined by
A) consensus.
B) oligarchs.
C) religious figures.
D) representatives.
E) economic elites.
3) Which of the following is a contemporary example of direct democracy?
A) trial by jury
B) New England town meetings
C) congressional elections
D) political protests
E) the Electoral College
4) Personal liberty is most closely related to
A) freedom. B) equality. C) civility. D) fascism. E) suffrage.
5) American political culture emphasizes
A) collaboration.
B) agnosticism.
C) atheism.
D) political equality.
E) socialism.
6) The belief that authority in society ultimately rests with the people is known as
A) establishmentarianism.
B) natural rights.
C) common law.
D) popular sovereignty.
E) Hobbesian law.
7) The belief that society should be governed by certain ethical principles that are part of nature
and can be understood by reason is called
A) ethical law.
B) contract law.
C) natural law.
D) Newtonʹs law.
E) civil law.
8) A civil society
A) is ʺnasty, brutish, and short.ʺ
B) is ruled by a leviathan.
C) encourages citizens to engage in policy debates.
D) is harmful to democracy.
E) hinders a frank exchange of ideas.
9) George W. Bush has argued that the United States
A) should guarantee social, political, and economic equality.
B) should spread democracy abroad.
C) would be better off under the rule of a benevolent dictator.
D) should reduce dependence on fossil fuels by reducing economic growth.
E) should return to its isolationist roots.
10) Americans are most likely to believe that
A) politicians can be trusted.
B) presidents should have strong religious beliefs.
C) illegal immigration benefits the American economy.
D) government should avoid moderate policies.
E) Social Security should be eliminated.
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